If polygamy was so common in the olden times of the bible, who said it was best to have one wife?

Question

pretty much meaning, since the days where a man had to work for the father tending the sheep and stuff before he could ask to marry one of the daughters, like in Jacob's story I believe. Who said and during what time period was it determined that there would be one man and one woman for each other?

Answer 1

It may have been the custom back then to have multiple wives, as it is today in some parts of the world. However, there are only a few instances in the Bible in which this practice is described. My guess is that it was OK for certain men to have more than one wife as long as it was approved or commanded by God. I'm sure God knows who can and who can't handle more than one wife. I doubt I could do it. I can barely afford to support one set of wife and kids... imagine if I had to support two or three, or even more!

It appears that the practice of having multiple wives was common in New Testament times, as Paul made an effort to say that certain individuals such as bishops and deacons should only have one wife (1Timothy 3: 2, 12). I doubt he would make such a statement if monogamous relationships were already practiced by everyone. I suppose over time this was taken to mean that everyone should only have one wife, and the concept became widespread.

Answer 2

By the time the Old Testament was wrapping up, men pretty much had already moved into only having one wife. If you remember, the Rachel and Leah story was not exactly the fairy tale ending!! They were miserable and always contending with one another for their husband's love! But after this time, the Law as given through Moses says, "If you should appoint yourself a king, he shall not gather wives to himself." It is best when marriage is between one man and one woman. Polygamy is not good for family life, and it breeds jealousy.

Answer 3

In a way, it was like divorce. God allowed it, but it was not His intention. God intended one woman and one man for life. Just because it was practiced did not mean it was right.

In the New Testament, we see the qualifications of elders as "the husband of one wife." 1 Timothy 3:2, Titus 1:6

Answer 4

God always intended on one man and one woman as one flesh. But God is merciful and allowed a provision for widowed women to be cared for. If a woman lost her husband and had no means of support or a child to take care of her it was a custom for another man to marry her to bring her under his protection and support. It was suppose to be a merciful, loving act to make sure women had proper care. It was never intended for men to have harems and many women for their lustful whims. But man's heart is sinful, so the custom was abused and misapplied. King David's family suffered greatly because he lost the intent of the provision and women became degraded in the sinfulness of his and his son's desires. Thankfully, Jesus reaffirmed God's heart that the marriage union is for one man and one woman. In the new church, widowed women are to be supported by the church, under the church community's care and protection.

Answer 5

Polygamy has only existed (nowadays also) mainly in places where there was many more women than men, as a social method to keep widows and women from dying when they couldn't maintain themselves.

When there are the same women than men (approximately) this practice tends to disappear.

Answer 6

Many of the "laws" governing marriage and relationships are complete arbitrary, decided upon at a societal level.

Answer 7

Polygamy is cool if it's not hurting anyone, including yourself... regardless of what the Bible or any other book says about it...

Answer 8

Great question that I wanted to know about. I agree with chalkbrd.

Answer 9

there are many things in the old testament that Jesus corrected and now no longer apply to our lives because of Jesus