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If so, what is it? (P.S. it isn't Christ)

2006-07-26 15:02:47 · 30 answers · asked by Steve B 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Just so you know, Christ comes from the word "Christos" which means "Messiah", its just a title, not a name.

2006-07-26 15:06:33 · update #1

30 answers

according to tradition His name would be Jesus bar Joseph.

Christ is a title, not a name

2006-07-26 15:06:26 · answer #1 · answered by Ryan W 4 · 0 0

Ah, guys and gals, one small problem here! In a sense, this question has no answer because you have the wrong first name. His name wasn't Jesus. Jesus was the name used when Greeks translated the holy books of the time into the greek language. Most newer translations (the latin versions, King James, Good News for Modern Men, etc) continued to use the name Jesus as they were translated from the greek or based on other editions that were translated from the greek version. I have read different articles on this. The articles don't agree on the exact spelling or even the name but the majority of articles agree that his name was some form of the name Joshua. They debate the spelling as Joshua is considered by some to be an english spelling where as Yeshua might be more of a hebrew or semitic spelling. And there are more spellings than just these two.

While these articles agree that the greeks translated the name Joshua into the name Jesus, they don't all agree regarding the meaning of the name Jesus. Some articles say that Jesus is the greek equivalent to the hebrew Joshua. Other articles say that the greek translators picked Jesus because the name means something. One example is that Jesus supposedly means "Jehovah in Salvation". Some of the articles say Christ means "the Annointed One" however I've seen other articles that gave the word Christ a different meaning.

The point is that before you can start to try and determine what his last name was, you might try to get his first name correct. Your best bet for getting an accurate answer (provided this is a serious question and not one of those questions where you already believe you know the answer and are just waiting for someone to agree with you) is to find a biblical scholar - hopefully one that can read and translate the original biblical texts - ie the pre-greek translation ones.

One of the most amazing things about Yahoo Answers is how many of you people are willing to answer questions about which you have no knowledge. Even more amazing is that it seems the less you know the more certain you are that your answer is the correct one.

I'm not 100% certain I am correct about this. And I don't to pretend that I am. Instead I tell you what I have read and try and point you in a direction that might get you the correct answer.

I think I should stop using Yahoo Answers. It just raises my blood pressure.

2006-07-26 22:52:31 · answer #2 · answered by Spiritual but not religious 4 · 0 0

Most people didn't have last names during that time. Their last name had to do with their family's occupation or their own. John the Baptist was called so because he baptized people. Jesus was called the son of a carpenter by some and the Nazarene by the demons. He is called the Christ by Christians.

2006-07-26 22:07:06 · answer #3 · answered by The Nana of Nana's 7 · 0 0

Last names were not used at that point in history - hence the expression Jesus of Nazareth or Jesus the son of Joseph. This can be seen in the use of every name throughout the Bible. Last names were formed later, such as the example that Don gave.

2006-07-26 22:09:22 · answer #4 · answered by petezsmg 3 · 0 0

In the Hebrew tradition, last names were not as we know then to be today. People, especially men were identified by who their father was- often even for Jewish people today, you will see "name BEN name" ben is "son of" they would do this even up to the grandfathers name. Another identifier would be from where they came, for xample, Jesus of Nazareth and Mary of Magdelena (no , Magdeline was not her last name!)

For Europeans, for a while there were no last names either, you were identified by what you did, Joseph the blacksmith and Sam the blacksmiths son - these eventually evloved into family names - Joseph and Sam Smith- still identifying you by who your father was

2006-07-26 22:10:12 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

No - surnames were not popularly introduced until after the Middle Ages. Jesus was simply known as Jesus, or Jesus from (of) Nazareth. He could have presumably been known as Jesus Ben-Joseph (Jesus, son of Joseph), except that Joseph was His surrogate earthly father and not a direct blood relation. Note that I refer to father-son relationship with that statement. They weren't direct blood relations, but both were descendants of David (as well as Mary, via a different family branch).

2006-07-27 10:46:47 · answer #6 · answered by byhisgrace70295 5 · 0 0

Jesus Nazerath.

2006-07-26 22:04:28 · answer #7 · answered by Chinster 2 · 0 0

Considering that at that time it was common for a child's name be attached to a parent's name like "Frank son of George". Most likely, he would have been address as "Jesus son of Mary". And not "son of Joseph", because joseph was not the blood father. In a poor hebrew translation it probably would be something like "Yeshua Ben Miriam".

2006-07-26 22:33:08 · answer #8 · answered by CapnZez 1 · 0 0

Jesus' last name isn't Christ. If you follow Hebrew tradition, Jesus full name spoken in Hebrew would be 'Yeshua bar Yosef', or Jesus son of Joseph.

2006-07-26 22:05:37 · answer #9 · answered by ~ ♥ Sun$hine ♥ ~ 3 · 0 0

Dont no . Jesus Christ

2006-07-26 22:04:00 · answer #10 · answered by Bri 1 · 0 0

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