question for jehovahs wittnesses?

Question

Ok i had a question... in 1 Peter 4,6 it says that when jesus was dead during the 3 days before his ressurection he went to the world of the dead to preach to all the souls of the people who died in the flood during noahs time.. then he took them to heaven with him..

my questions are ,is there is to world of the dead witch is hell..because i know jws dont belive in hell and 2 .. if jesus didnt exsist until the 3 rd day when jehovah ressurected him as a spirit then how did he preach to all the lost souls in the world of the dead??? some input would help thank you..

3 answers

Answer 1

The biblical "hell" simply refers to the condition of being dead; Jesus was dead for three days so the bible says that he was in "the grave" or "hell" according to some English translations.

The Scriptures do not say WHEN Jesus "preached" or "heralded" to the "spirits in prison", but clearly it was AFTER his resurrection back to spirit life.

Similarly, the Scriptures do not say that Jesus was himself *IN* that prison with the demons. In fact, Peter himself shows that the demons's "prison" is their hopeless state of "dense [spiritual] darkness" and that most certainly is *NOT* the yet-future judgment that the demons must suffer:

(2 Peter 2:4) Certainly if God did not hold back from punishing the angels that sinned, but, by throwing them into Tartarus, delivered them to pits of dense darkness TO BE RESERVED FOR JUDGMENT [caps added]

The 'preaching' there was Jesus proudly heralding Jehovah's victory over Satan (in that Jesus had been faithful to death and successfully provided a ransom).

(1 Peter 3:18-20) Christ died once for all time concerning sins, a righteous person for unrighteous ones, that he might lead YOU to God, he being put to death in the flesh, but being made alive in the spirit. 19 In this state also he went his way and preached to the spirits in prison, 20 who had once been disobedient when the patience of God was waiting in Noah’s days

Learn more:
http://watchtower.org/library/w/2002/7/15/article_01.htm

Answer 2

What does 1 Peter 3:19, 20 mean? “In this state [in the spirit, following his resurrection] also he [Jesus] went his way and preached to the spirits in prison, who had once been disobedient when the patience of God was waiting in Noah’s days, while the ark was being constructed, in which a few people, that is, eight souls [“souls,” KJ, Dy; “people,” TEV, JB; “persons,” RS], were carried safely through the water.” (Were those “spirits in prison” the souls of the humans who had refused to take heed to Noah’s preaching before the Flood, and was the way now open for them to go to heaven? Comparison of 2 Peter 2:4 and Jude 6 with Genesis 6:2-4 shows that these spirits were angelic sons of God that had materialized and married in Noah’s day. At 1 Peter 3:19, 20 the Greek word for “spirits” is pneu′ma·sin, while the word rendered “souls” is psy·khai′. The “spirits” were not disembodied souls but disobedient angels; the “souls” here referred to were living people, humans, Noah and his household. What was preached to “spirits in prison” must therefore have been a message of judgment.)

What is the meaning of 1 Peter 4:6? “In fact, for this purpose the good news was declared also to the dead, that they might be judged as to the flesh from the standpoint of men but might live as to the spirit from the standpoint of God.” (Were these “dead” the people who had died prior to the death of Christ? As already shown, the dead are not “the spirits in prison.” Those spirits were disobedient angels. And preaching would not have benefited physically dead humans because, as Ecclesiastes 9:5 says, they “are conscious of nothing at all,” and Psalm 146:4 adds that at death a person’s “thoughts do perish.” But Ephesians 2:1-7, 17 does refer to persons who were spiritually dead and who came to life spiritually as a result of accepting the good news.)

try reading gen 6:2-4 markkwalker

Answer 3

“The dead” that heard Jesus speak on earth. In considering Jesus’ words, we note that when Jesus spoke, some of “the dead” were hearing his voice. Peter used similar language when he said: “In fact, for this purpose the good news was declared also to the dead, that they might be judged as to the flesh from the standpoint of men but might live as to the spirit from the standpoint of God.” (1Pe 4:6) This is so because those hearing Christ were ‘dead in trespasses and sins’ before hearing but would begin to ‘live’ spiritually because of faith in the good news.—Eph 2:1; compare Mt 8:22; 1Ti 5:6.

Answer 4

He was in hell,preaching to lost souls who died in Noahs day.They did not get out of hell,but they heard the gospel none the less.God Bless you.Im not a Jehovahs Witness,btw.I am a King James Onlyist.

Answer 5

you take too many liberties with definitions. .

Jesus didn't exist in the corporeal sense. He DID and DOES exist as the Son of God, the spirt. While dead, his spirit still lives on, and while dead - or rather, in limbo of sorts, he then went to preach to the lost souls.

Answer 6

Its figurative. This is so because those hearing Christ were dead in their own trespasses and sins before hearing Jesus, but would begin to live spiritually because of faith and the good news. You can cross reference this scripture with Ephesians 2:1) - "Furthermore, [it is] YOU [God made alive] though you were dead in your trespasses and sins." Also, in Matthew 8:22 it states: "Jesus said to him: 'Keep following me, and let the dead bury their dead." Since it speaks of the 'dead' burying the dead, it can't literally mean those unconscious in death are doing the action of burying the dead. Im currently studying with Witnesses, and I had my friend help me on the phone with this one hehe, good questions; I really hope we answered them well :)

Answer 7

what's your element? you're no longer even asking a question, you're attempting to lie to people into thinking that Jesus is God whilst he's not. of direction Jesus exchange into suitable, and Thomas knew that he exchange into God's Son. Thomas could be responsive to it with the aid of fact Jesus taught that. Jesus by no ability claimed to be God. he's "godlike" although and Theos could nicely be translated as "godlike". with the aid of the way, the Watchtower teaches properly, Theos is the Greek be conscious meaning: “divine,” “godlike,” or “a god.” It relies upon how this is used, does it have a distinctive or indefinite article in the previous it. whilst Theos is preceded with the aid of a distinctive article it ability "The God", as in Almighty God this is Jehovah. no count if this is preceded with the aid of an indefinite article then it ability "a god" or a "godlike" one. you are able to twist the scriptures all you like, in basic terms like the Pharisees whilst Jesus exchange into in the worldwide, yet you will by no ability trip up Jehovah's people who definitely use sparkling actuality, no longer twisted guy's strategies. Your Yahoo identity identifies you as an apostate. So with the aid of fact you have been as quickly as linked with Jehovah's Witnesses you would be responsive to with the aid of now from sparkling scriptural learn that Jesus exchange into of course God's Son. how are you able to bypass lower back to the vomit? you're fooling your self. (2 Peter 2:20-22) ***LOL "Olin Moyle". you're each week too previous due.

Answer 8

I don't know what you have right GREG AM, but what you have wrong is that fallen angels did not marry. There is on proof of this in the bible.

Answer 9

You make a good point its stuff like this that made me shut my briefcase and hang up my suit coat.

Answer 10

I pray that you get healed from your deformity of illiteracy!