2006-07-26 02:30:05 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
NO. Language is constantly evolving and never stays still. English is no different than any other language in that regard. The older generation in Shakespeare's day was saying, "The kids now don't speak English as well as they used to, and the language isn't beautiful anymore." Poor William, to have his plays criticized as "not beautiful". EVERY generation of speakers of EVERY language thinks that the next generation has "ruined" the language.
2006-07-26 02:35:33 · answer #1 · answered by Taivo 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I agree, English is not as poetic as a lot of other languages I have heard. French, Italian, Russian seem beautiful even when the person speaking is just communicating normal everyday information.
2006-07-26 04:03:14 · answer #2 · answered by erik c 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
we are no more effective impolite than the French, they refused to study the different language, and once you visit France in case you do not talk French you're screw. So is in Quebec, Canada. And even as they visit different united states of america they refused to speak some thing yet French. by using ways Christopher Columbus, did not got here upon u.s., he chanced on. And it changed into the British, who depending u.s., and they spoke English. the first immigrants that got here to those united states of america had to study English, and they worked for a residing to make this united states of america what it truly is at present, so that you may ***** about it. So why the hell, no man or woman needs to study the language, even as they arrive to this united states of america anymore? And maximum folk live off the authorities. Do you believe that if it were any incorrect way round, and the ppl from the U. S. had to immigrate to South u.s., Spain etc.. they could get away with no longer learning the language? i imagine no longer!!! we are no more effective racist than each and every person else. as a rely of certainty, there are more effective racism between us hispanics than from the U. S..
2016-11-26 00:39:10 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It sounds like you wrote down an unfinished thought. (If I said to you that English is not as poetic). As poetic as what? What are you comparing English to? (And spoke as respectively as it was). As respectively as it was WHEN is my question? Had you asked your question like this, for example; If I said to you" English is not as romantic as Greek and not spoken as respectively as it was during the 16th century", then it would make more sense.
2006-07-26 02:45:22 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'm a little lost - are you talking about modern English as opposed to middle English? I would say I have no idea, as I've never studied middle English. I tried to read a little Chaucer once, just to see how different it was.
2006-07-26 02:35:33 · answer #5 · answered by locolady98 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think the way you wrote your own question kinda proves your own point. Don'tcha think?
2006-07-26 02:34:49 · answer #6 · answered by Billy! 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋