not really because he wrote that book as fiction. he never claimed it as fact.
2006-07-25 11:05:04
·
answer #1
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
The verse you meant is Revelation 22 verse18.
I have noticed many have emphasized the fact that Dan Brown's book is fiction so I edited this paragrph in after my original post. The problem is that Brown claims his book is based on fact and both in the book and in the movie, it seems the only fact he got correct was that Jesus was born but all of his so-called other facts disparage true Christianity and tear down the truth of the Gospel of Jesus Christ and they depend on historically unreliable sources as well as anti-Christian sources.
The "Da Vinci Code" is based on partly on Gnostic writings which are not Lost Books but rejected as not part of the Holy Scriptures because the authorship was not who those books claimed to have written them and because they contradicted the Biblical teachings of Jesus and the apostles.
Brown's book is based on myths that he twists even worst then their original false form like the supposed Holy Grail. He also quotes and bases much of His writings on anti-Christian ideas from Paganism, Wicca, the Masons and other UN-Biblical groups and their writings.
I personally know a woman into Wicca and she told me of herself:
"I am a Pagan, a Wicca and Paganism and Christianity do not mix" when she hjeard me and another person discussing
"The Da Vinci Code" and I explained how it mixed Paganism and Christianity together thus coming to false conclusions about Jesus.
Ironically that one statement:
"Paganism and Christianity do not mix", myself as a Christian and a Wiccan can agree on. That is exactly why Dan Brown in writing The DaVinci Code has come to erroneous conclusions.
So yes Dan Brown has overstepped the bounds.
As to what Revelation 22:18 says it is specifically talking about the book of Revelation though that principle does ring true for the whole Bible.
Examples of that principle in other places is the many warnings against vain imaginations, foolish fables, false doctrines,
false shepherds and false prophets.
These warnings are found in both
the Old and the New Testaments.
It seems to me that the DaVinci Code and Dan Brown fulfils many of the warnings that the Bible points out as evil, especially all of the above warnings.
So once again yes, Dan Brown has overstepped the bounds.
2006-07-25 11:19:14
·
answer #2
·
answered by Pastor Bill 3
·
0⤊
0⤋
The "Da Vinci Code" has nothing to do with the Holy Bible. The "Da Vinci Code" is a work of fiction (look at the spine classification). Therefore, the fictional story by Dan Brown does not violate the precepts of Rev 22, which deals with God's Words, not Dan Browns words.
Rev 22:18 I testify to everyone who hears the prophetic words of this book: If anyone adds to them, God will add to him the plagues that are written in this book.
Rev 22:19 And if anyone takes away from the words of this prophetic book, God will take away his share of the tree of life and the holy city, written in this book.
2006-07-25 11:10:17
·
answer #3
·
answered by steve 4
·
0⤊
0⤋
As many have already mentioned, the warning only pertains to the book of Revelations. Further proof of this is that chronologically, the book of Revelations was written before a number of other books in the New Testament...it was merely put at the end because it contains a promise of the second coming.
Dan Brown has overstepped his bounds, yes, but as he himself calls it a work of fiction, I can't say that he's really done anything wrong. Though I disagree wholeheartedly with his theory, it is a fascinating one.
2006-07-25 11:38:25
·
answer #4
·
answered by qtzilla 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
No, Revalation 22-23 warns of adding or subtracting from the bible. Also, "The Da Vinci Code" was a work of fiction.
2006-07-25 11:07:29
·
answer #5
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
Pointing out that other people have added and subtracted from "the book" is not the same as doing the adding and subtracting.
Besides, when the book of Revelation was penned, NONE of the new testament had yet been made part of "the book."
How does a modern day mystery story made into a movie have anything at all to do with a misc. scripture in the book of revelation?
2006-07-25 11:12:02
·
answer #6
·
answered by Dustin Lochart 6
·
0⤊
0⤋
There is a really great article on the website below that exposes the truth behind the Da Vinci Code. Have fun reading!
2006-07-25 11:05:35
·
answer #7
·
answered by songoftheforest 3
·
0⤊
0⤋
The Bible has a unique characteristic in that is completely unified in thought. All 66 books are in complete agreement. When there is a difficult passage to understand, you can look to other sections of scripture to explain it.
2 Timothy 3:16 All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness
Since God is the author of all scripture we have no conflict of thought. The Da Vinci code takes it's claims from the gnostic gospels which were written 200-300 years after Jesus death. The gnostic gospels claim that Jesus is not true God, but only a man. Scripture tells us that Jesus is true God and true man.
Matthew 3:16-17 As soon as Jesus was baptized, he went up out of the water. At that moment heaven was opened, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove and lighting on him. And a voice from heaven said, "This is my Son, whom I love; with him I am well pleased."
John 12:23 And Jesus answered them, saying, "The hour has come for the Son of Man to be glorified.
Scripture clearly tells us Jesus is God's Son and he is also the Son of Man. The gnostic gospels obviously are not in agreement with scripture since they claim Jesus is not true God. So if the gnostic gospels are not God-breathed, who are they written by? Scripture gives us the answer.
1 John 4:2,3 This is how you can recognize the Spirit of God: Every spirit that acknowledges that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God, but every spirit that does not acknowledge Jesus is not from God. This is the spirit of the antichrist, which you have heard is coming and even now is already in the world.
2006-07-25 11:24:35
·
answer #8
·
answered by d8 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
Interesting question: You are aware of course, that before the unknown authors of Revelation borrowed this very verse from the Torah, God had instructed Moses to include this warning in his book, Dueteronomy Chp 4. In my opinion, this supposed attempt to give the NT the same validation as the Original Source Text, the Torah fails. In addition, the plagiarism of many pagan cult teachings and synergism of those pagan religions into the Christian Religion certainly demonstrates the willingness of the majority of Christian apologist to ignore the Word of GOD for their own political and financial benefit. Sincerely
2006-07-25 11:18:13
·
answer #9
·
answered by Laughingwalt 3
·
0⤊
0⤋
Well, first of all the "book" in question is the book of Revelation. The Bible was not a cohesive work until the 4th Century A.D., and the Bible as we know it today didn't begin to take shape until 1611 with the Authorized KJV. So Revelation 22 is irrelevant in the context you are assigning to it.
2006-07-25 11:10:30
·
answer #10
·
answered by Zombie 7
·
0⤊
0⤋
At the time Revelation was written, it was a stand alone book. That warning applies to the book of Revelation itself, not the Bible as a whole, which didn't yet exist.
You have to wonder why the author felt compelled to put that in there. Hmmmm.
2006-07-25 11:09:01
·
answer #11
·
answered by lenny 7
·
0⤊
0⤋