MARK 4:10-12 But when He was alone, those around Him with the twelve asked Him about the parable. And He said to them, "To you it has been given to know the mystery of the kingdom of God; but to those who are outside, all things come in parables, "so that'Seeing they may see and not perceive, And hearing they may hear and not understand; Lest they should turn, And their sins be forgiven them.' "
2006-07-25 08:32:45 · 16 answers · asked by Atheist 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
FOR SOMEONE WHO DOESN'T LIKE OR BELIEVE IN GOD YOU SURE TALK ABOUT HIM AN AWFUL LOT. WHY IS THAT?
2006-07-26 08:34:06 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 6⤊ 2⤋
To answer your question, it's just like it sounds. You're 'quoting' (which is by definition verbatim) out of 'context' (without giving or taking into account the general situation or people).
In particular, the Bible must be read as a whole to grasp any individual passage's meaning. Perhaps if you gave your interpretation of that passage, you could get some help from people who may be able to enlighten you to how it fits in with the general 'context' of the Bible and where you may be right or wrong.
2006-07-25 08:41:06 · answer #2 · answered by brodie g 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus has just delivered the parable about the seed that was scattered in "different soil" [of men's hearts]. He often spoke in parables so that only those who truly wanted to understand would figure out what was being said.
(It's the only way to ensure real repentance, rather than personal change meant merely to avoid punishment.)
Here he refers back to Isaiah 6:9-10. Jesus quoted the OT scripture alot, as a point of commonality with his audience.
Isaiah claimed God had said something similar as part of his assignment to preach to an "unclean" people. Israel was notorious for repenting only when there seemed to be punishment involved. While God often honored it (because it has the potential for change), in this case he wanted Isaiah's message to be clouded to ensure real change, if any change was to occur.
The Septuagint actually has a slightly different rendition of Isaiah 6:9-10:
"You will be ever hearing, but never understanding; you will be ever seeing, but never perceiving.' This people's heart has become calloused; they hardly hear with their ears, and they have closed their eyes."
2006-07-26 08:31:07 · answer #3 · answered by Jennywocky 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Context depends on the scope of the question and what Scripture you use to frame that question. What's the point about quoting from Mark 4:10-12? Did you have a question regarding this piece of Scripture?
2006-07-25 08:39:22 · answer #4 · answered by leo509 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is like saying that someone said, "I hate you!" without also saying that you ran over their dog first.
In the case of the Bible though, it is often hard to understand the meaning of certain verses without knowing already what the Lord has said on the subject elsewhere. It's like a puzzle, you can't know the entire picture just by looking at one piece.
This is also the reason why people often quote scripture in their answers because it is needed to clarify on the verse the question is about.
2006-07-25 08:42:40 · answer #5 · answered by Samantha 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I am not sure of the specific point that you are making regarding the text that you quote. But, in answer to your question, the chapters and verses sometimes confuse matters regarding scripture. Those were added much later. Therefore, quoting a verse of the Bible does not mean that the complete thought was quoted. Verses are often part of a much larger chunk of information, or part of a sermon, where the whole text needs to be evaluated for meaning.
2006-07-25 08:42:11 · answer #6 · answered by Boilerfan 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Perhaps the *inspired word of God* is sposed to be absolutely literal and the word parables "a short moral story" actually meaning that some people with eyes actually couldn't see and some people with ears actually couldn't hear (sensorility speaking) and something got lost in translation.
2006-07-25 08:40:08 · answer #7 · answered by mikeythechimpwillhewin 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Didn't read more than the headline. You can be "quoted out of context" when the quote you are referencing does not apply to the situation. If I used a quote that said, "Kill it!", but the original quote was referencing hitting something hard as opposed to ending somethings life, then that would be out of context, even though it was an exact quote.
2006-07-25 08:38:44 · answer #8 · answered by Smoothie 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Its easy to quote verbatim and quote out of context. eg. Ecclesiastes says: "meaningless meaningless everything is meaningless" When someone says only that part, they could claim everything is indeed meaningless... however in context of the chapter, it is quoting what wrong things were being said in the temples at the time.
2006-07-25 08:39:57 · answer #9 · answered by impossble_dream 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
An example for you:
There is a Bible verse that says "The fool says in his heart there is no god."
If you only quote part of that verse, you might say "there is no god," but you're obviously taking it out of context.
"In Context" means including the words surrounding the portion you're reading. (Con = with. Text = text.)
2006-07-25 08:38:56 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
unless it is revealed to you by the Spirit you can read the words all day and they will be nonsense to you...its like having the answer right in front of your face all day when your trying to solve a problem and then all of a sudden the light turns on in ur head and u see the solution...same concept...the understanding is spiritual not logical and not a word play...there is only one true meaning of everything God has said....its not open to private interpretation and no amount of debate will ever change it.
2006-07-25 08:44:16 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋