John 10:30
2006-07-25 04:40:20 · 13 answers · asked by Wayne S 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Yes HE did!
And ALL understood!
2006-07-25 04:42:34 · answer #1 · answered by whynotaskdon 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes, in John 10:30
2006-07-25 11:42:53 · answer #2 · answered by Char 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I believe he did. I also know that Jesus said that noone can get to the father without passing through me first. So the answer is yes, (you answered for yourself John 10:30)
2006-07-25 11:43:16 · answer #3 · answered by dlorey13 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Maybe. At least whoever wrote the book attributed to John claims that he did. And even if he really did say it, it should not necessarity be taken literally, as in the example below:
How does a man become 'one flesh' with his wife?
They don't really become the same person do they?
Genesis 2:24. "For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and they will become one flesh" NIV
2006-07-25 11:47:27 · answer #4 · answered by mikayla_starstuff 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes
2006-07-25 11:43:22 · answer #5 · answered by Grandma Susie 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, and not to be taken literally. One in a sense that they have one purpose "God's kingdom". Just like a wife and husband working together for the purpose of raising a family.
2006-07-25 11:44:30 · answer #6 · answered by Pinolera 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
sure, its called the trinity
Father, Son, Holy Ghost are ONE
2006-07-25 11:43:48 · answer #7 · answered by sunflare63 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No he did not speak English.
Or French
He said in Aramaic:
If you have seen me you have seen the father.
2006-07-25 12:10:04 · answer #8 · answered by Grandreal 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes and that is with the same Spirit and mind.
That can happen with people to you know.
2006-07-25 11:42:34 · answer #9 · answered by jackiedj8952 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
John 10;30 is where you find that quote.
Why did you answer your own question?
2006-07-25 11:50:37 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋