2006-07-24 11:47:25 · 16 answers · asked by Kenny ♣ 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
No, seriously, did she consent to being the mother of Jesus or not?
2006-07-24 11:56:49 · update #1
It was some immaculate monkey lovin'!
seriously, would her opinion have mattered?
2006-07-24 11:50:54 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
The immaculate conception deals only with the conception of the Blessed Virgin Mary in her mother's womb.
Mary was the only non-divine human who was privileged by God to be born without the stain of original sin.
This was done so that Jesus could be conceived and born from an "earthly vessel" that was truly holy and worthy of his divine presence, and so Jesus himself would never be touched by sin.
Anyone who reads the biblical account of the Annunciation can clearly see that the angel of God asked Mary's permission, and that she fully consented to become the mother of God.
The birth of Christ is referred to as "the virgin birth" not the immaculate conception.
2006-07-24 21:41:07 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Immaculate only really means clean and tidy and God didn't procreate with anyone. It's misguided people who think Mary was a virgin. What it actually means when they say virgin birth was that it was her very first child/labour. The father was Joseph, the conception wasn't messy and Jesus was just lucky (or unlucky) enough to be chosen by God.
2006-07-24 18:53:33 · answer #3 · answered by pniccimiss 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Assuming that the story is true, I would say that God chose Mary for good reasons and one of them being that she would accept the whole scenario, I think God would not have chosen her if she was going to feel violated, and there is no indication in the story that she was or felt violated. She was most likely someone who wanted to serve God and that was how she was able to do so. In that sense, she would have given consent. There was no sex involved obviously, and so basicly what she did was bear a child for God and that's all.
2006-07-24 19:11:59 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It was not rape, there was no sex involved.
The Bible (where we get the story of Mary's immaculate conception) says that an angel appeared to her and told her that she'd been favored by God and would have his son...well here, the Bible says it best.
Luke 1:26-37 is the discussion between the angel and Mary- look it up!
Luke 1:38 "I am the Lord's servant' Mary answered 'May it be to me as you have said"
As you can see- God sent his angel to ask Mary and she agreed. God never forces himself on us, that's why we are allowed to chose to believe in Him! He gave us free will, he asks and we are able to chose to obey or disobey.
Keep seeking God- asking questions even to disprove him is seeking- He tells us "seek and you will find, knock and the door will be opened to you" God Bless and keep asking questions! Even if it's to disprove God, you are seeking, and He will let you find Him!
2006-07-24 19:00:33 · answer #5 · answered by NewMom4-20 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Romans 10
2006-07-24 18:50:50 · answer #6 · answered by robert p 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There was NO sex involved just a conception. So therefore there was no rape. (You are probably confusing this with the Wiccan/Pagan gods /demons who routinely were said to have Raped thier women to have children like the story in the "Rape of Persephone") We routinely see people get pregnant without sex it is done in many of hospitals EVERY day why do people still insist it could never happen?
2006-07-24 18:51:40 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Seriously, Mary consented. It's in the Bible.
2006-07-24 19:17:04 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
lol, who knows. If God did rape Mary, the Christians would probably still accept it because they obviously think incest is okay.
2006-07-24 19:47:48 · answer #9 · answered by el diablo sexy : ] 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
God isn't physical...
Jesus is the body (physical)
God is the mind
and the Holy Spirit is the ... spirit
LOL
2006-07-24 18:50:02 · answer #10 · answered by Elf 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋