Why did Jesus refer to himself as "The Son of Man" when Numbers 23:19 says "God is not a man, that he should lie, neither the Son of Man, that he should repent, and Psalm 146:3 says "Put not your trust in princes, nor in the Son of Man, in whom there is no help".?
2006-07-23 20:28:00 · 16 answers · asked by Nowhere Man 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I've been through part of this with someone else, unless you are Beach.
1) Try not to interpret scripture if you are not a believer. They suck at it.
2) Get some Christian commentaries. They help a lot. The easy ones to get for your computer are good, even though they are not the $1000 one's a basic set gives you lots to look at. I use Theophilos 3.
3) Use the commentaries once you get them.
4) You are insinuating an interpretation of Numbers 23:19 that a lot of unbelievers just get rancid with.
5) There are more than one meaning to the phrase Son of Man. One meaning is the son of a man. The other meaning is the Messianic Son of Man.
6) I think you have them mixed up, don't do it again. (It would be good of you, otherwise you stop there and never get anywhere else.)
2006-07-23 20:39:13 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
The phrase "son of man" in Numbers 23:19 means human being. It is not the title "Son of Man" which was used for Jesus Christ in the New Testament.
In Psalm 146:3 the NASB reads "Do not trust in princes,
In mortal man, in whom there is no salvation". Again, this is not the title that Jesus was given in the NT.
2006-07-24 05:52:32 · answer #2 · answered by atreadia 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well I don't have a Bible with me to read the quotes in full context but what I gather "Son of Man" is more appropriately written as "son of man" meaning a human being.
So I would interpret Numbers 23:19 as; God is not like a man, he does does not lie, nor must he ask forgiviness. In other words, he is perfect.
Psalm 146:3; I can't deduct what the entire meaning is since its not whole, but the message: is you cannot depend on goverment not men for salvation.
2006-07-24 03:39:51 · answer #3 · answered by polishcosmogirl 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The word translated from the original hebrew into english as man has precise meanings depending on the original hebrew. Usually it is ish - which is man as fallible. adam in hebrew means mankind, ha adam means the man, gabor means mighty man (ie Gabriel means mighty man of God).
All the verses you named talk the fallible man.
The Master Yeshua Messuah - prophecied all over the Old Testament as you've discovered, is the perfection of YHVH in a man. A True Son of God, and True Son of Man. You can get more than one title at once if you earn it. Jesus is also called Melchizadek - the King of the Righteous/Just. You can check that in Genesis and the Psalms, as well as the New Testament.
2006-07-24 03:43:41 · answer #4 · answered by Kevin A 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nice try. But the Psalm 146:3 son of man is capitalized therefore it does not refer to Jesus Christ. You have misrepresented the scriptures.
Psalms 146
1 Praise ye the LORD. Praise the LORD, O my soul. 2 While I live will I praise the LORD: I will sing praises unto my God while I have any being. 3 Put not your trust in princes, nor in the son of man, in whom there is no help. 4 His breath goeth forth, he returneth to his earth; in that very day his thoughts perish. 5 Happy is he that hath the God of Jacob for his help, whose hope is in the LORD his God: 6 Which made heaven, and earth, the sea, and all that therein is: which keepeth truth for ever: 7 Which executeth judgment for the oppressed: which giveth food to the hungry. The LORD looseth the prisoners: 8 The LORD openeth the eyes of the blind: the LORD raiseth them that are bowed down: the LORD loveth the righteous: 9 The LORD preserveth the strangers; he relieveth the fatherless and widow: but the way of the wicked he turneth upside down. 10 The LORD shall reign for ever, even thy God, O Zion, unto all generations. Praise ye the LORD.
Have a good day.
2006-07-24 03:38:36 · answer #5 · answered by deacon 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
before u ask those question u need the book of john is a great book for beginner like u has little knowlegy of christ salvation, u need to think outside the box, god is not man but god create man it is own image. God send his son for the salvation of mankind in order for him to do that he make his son to live like a normal person and suffer seem the diff.
2006-07-24 03:32:48 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Did he truly refer to himself as the son of man, or has someone changed what he originally said. After all, Jesus also said not to give money to the church, but you know that we are told to tythe 10%
2006-07-24 03:33:13 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Each reference would have to be looked at in its context as Jesus was constantly trying to be ensnared by the religious of his time so his words had to reflect respect and courtesy as well as give credence to who he was - there would be those who would recognize as he called himself the Son of Man that he was evading their intent to ensnare him as it was not yet his time - but when it came his time, he did not mince with letting it be known he was the Son of God, the King of the Jews.
2006-07-24 03:37:16 · answer #8 · answered by dph_40 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hehe, cus he is the SON of MAN, meaning he is Human, thats like saying in modern day, I have been born from Humans. He's saying he's in human form,but he is still God.
2006-07-24 03:35:12 · answer #9 · answered by The_Asker123 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This shows you for sure how the bible contradicts itself, it's all because both the old and the new testament were written by different people over a long period of human history, therefore it's inevitable that you get inconsistencies.
2006-07-24 03:46:20 · answer #10 · answered by Andy797 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋