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To compare the morphology and derivational morphology of ancient languages to that of modern languages, which ones had more order and structure and regularity? Or are they the same? In modern languages there is much irregularity due to the process of language mixing from borrowing grammar and words and being effected in pronunciation through the spread of a language over a substratum linguistic group.

2006-07-23 13:27:19 · 1 answers · asked by David L 4 in Society & Culture Languages

1 answers

All the evidence indicates that ancient languages had just as many exceptions to rules and "disorder" as does any modern language. Language evolved about 100 thousand years ago and every language since then has had exceptions and "disorder". Exceptions and disorder are simply the relics of old grammar that hangs on as the language changes into its next stage. Indeed, the disorder in the conjugation of the verb "be" can be traced all the way back to Proto-Indo-European over 6000 years ago. It was just as messy then as it is today.

2006-07-23 14:27:02 · answer #1 · answered by Taivo 7 · 1 0

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