YES !!!
2006-07-22 11:04:20
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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1John5:20 "But we know that the Son of God has come, and he has given us intellectual capacity that we may gain the knowledge of the true one. And we are in union with the true one, by means of his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God and life everlasting."
You have picked an interesting scripture to answer. This will have to be done in segments as each segment builds on the one before.
First: "20 But we know that the Son of God has come," This segment acknowledges that Jesus (the son) of God (the True One) had come to the earth. It differentiates between Jesus and God as two separate and distinct persons.
Second "and he has given us intellectual capacity that we may gain the knowledge of the true one." That they have been blessed with holy spirit (God's active force) so that they have understanding of who God really is.
Third "And we are in union with the true one," That they are in agreement with and/or have understanding of God.
Fourth "by means of his Son Jesus Christ." That they were taught by Jesus Christ himself.
Fifth "This is the true God and life everlasting." Refers to the "true God" and that being "in union" -- agreement, that the result is life everlasting.
It takes many years of study and reading of the various texts translations and the original Greek and Hebrew texts to see and understand the sometimes obscure meanings of the Bible scriptures.
I hope this has helped your understanding of this scripture. Below I have included a link to an article entitled "Should You Believe The Trinity?" I think it will help put this scripture into perspective.
Enjoy your reading and have a good evening.
2006-07-22 14:30:44
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answer #2
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answered by .*. 6
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This is the true God - o There has been much difference of opinion in regard to this important passage; whether it refers to the Lord Jesus Christ, the immediate antecedent, or to a more remote antecedent - referring to God, as such. The question is of importance in its bearing on the doctrine of the divinity of the Saviour; for if it refers to him, it furnishes an unequivocal declaration that he is divine. The question is, whether John “meant” that it should be referred to him? Without going into an extended examination of the passage, the following considerations seem to me to make it morally certain that by the phrase “this is the true God,” etc., he did refer to the Lord Jesus Christ.
(1) the grammatical construction favors it. Christ is the immediate antecedent of the pronoun “this” - οὗτος houtos. This would be regarded as the obvious and certain construction so far as the grammar is concerned, unless there were something in the thing affirmed which led us to seek some more remote and less obvious antecedent. No doubt would have been ever entertained on this point, if it had not been for the reluctance to admit that the Lord Jesus is the true God. If the assertion had been that “this is the true Messiah;” or that “this is the Son of God;” or that “this is he who was born of the Virgin Mary,” there would have been no difficulty in the construction. I admit that his argument is not absolutely decisive; for cases do occur where a pronoun refers, not to the immediate antecedent, but to one more remote; but cases of that kind depend on the ground of necessity, and can be applied only when it would be a clear violation of the sense of the author to refer it to the immediate antecedent.
(2) this construction seems to be demanded by the adjunct which John has assigned to the phrase “the true God” - “eternal life.” This is an expression which John would be likely to apply to the Lord Jesus, considered as “life,” and the “source of life,” and not to God as such. “How familiar is this language with John, as applied to Christ! “In him (i. e. Christ) was life, and the life was the light of people - giving life to the world - the bread of life - my words are spirit and life - I am the way, and the truth, and the life. This life (Christ) was manifested, and we have “seen it,” and do testify to you, and declare the eternal life which was with the Father, and was manifested to us,” 1Jo_1:2.” - Prof. Stuart’s Letters to Dr. Channing, p. 83. There is no instance in the writings of John, in which the appellation life, and “eternal” life is bestowed upon the Father, to designate him as the author of spiritual and eternal life; and as this occurs so frequently in John’s writings as applied to Christ, the laws of exegesis require that both the phrase “the true God,” and “eternal life,” should be applied to him.
(3) if it refers to God as such, or to the word “true” - τὸν ἀληθινόν (Θεὸν) ton alēthinon (Theon) it would be mere tautology, or a mere truism. The rendering would then be, “That we may know the true God, and we are in the true God: this is the true God, and eternal life.” Can we believe that an inspired man would affirm gravely, and with so much solemnity, and as if it were a truth of so much magnitude, that the true God is the true God?
(4) this interpretation accords with what we are sure John would affirm respecting the Lord Jesus Christ. Can there be any doubt that he who said, “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God;” that he who said, “all things were made by him, and without him was not anything made that was made;” that he who recorded the declaration of the Saviour, “I and my Father are one,” and the declaration of Thomas, “my Lord and my God,” would apply to him the appellation “the true God!”
(5) if John did not mean to affirm this, he has made use of an expression which was liable to be misunderstood, and which, as facts have shown, would be misconstrued by the great portion of those who might read what he had written; and, moreover, an expression that would lead to the very sin against which he endeavors to guard in the next verse - the sin of substituting a creature in the place of God, and rendering to another the honor due to him. The language which he uses is just such as, according to its natural interpretation, would lead people to worship one as the true God who is not the true God, unless the Lord Jesus be divine. For these reasons, it seems to me that the fair interpretation of this passage demands that it should be understood as referring to the Lord Jesus Christ. If so, it is a direct assertion of his divinity, for there could be no higher proof of it than to affirm that he is the true God.
2006-07-22 11:10:51
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answer #3
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answered by BrotherMichael 6
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Who was God talking to in Genesis (1:26) when he said "let us make man in our image?) Himself??? Jesus ALWAYS was there with God-He came to earth in human flesh to take our sins upon Himself to make possible the relationship lost when adam and eve sinned in the garden. Only God can wipe away sin. 1 John 5:20 says as much.. It is a matter of faith.
2006-07-22 11:15:32
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answer #4
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answered by neic'e 3
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Yes!
John 20:28 - Thomas said: "My Lord and my God" to Jesus.
2 Cor. 5:19 - To wit, God was in Christ, reconciling the world back to himself
Col. 2:9 - In him (Jesus) dwelleth all of the fullness of the Godhead bodily
2006-07-22 11:05:36
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answer #5
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answered by Acts 2 38 3
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Jehovah,the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ,is the true God.He is the Creator,the one giving eternal life to those who love him.Jesus himself said:"This means everlasting life,their taking in knowledge of you,the only true God,and of the one who you sent forth,Jesus Christ"(John17:3)
1 John 5:20,says in part:"We are in union with the true one,by means of his Son Jesus Christ.This is the true God and life everlasting."Yet,many churchgoers give the expression a different meaning
Believers on the Trinity doctrine hold that the demonstrative pronoun ":this" (hou'tos) refers to its immediate antecedent,Jesus Christ.They assert that Jesus is "the true God and life everlasting".This interpretation,however,is in conflict with the rest of the Scriptures.And many authoritative scholars do not accept this Trinitarian view.Cambridge University scholar B.F.Westcott wrote:"The most natural reference [of the pronoun hou'tos]is to the subject not logically nearest but dominant in the mind of the apostle."Thus, the apostle John had in mind Jesus' Father.German theologian Erich Haupt wrote:"It has to be determined whether the [hou'tos}of the next proposition refers to the locally and immediately preceding subject....or to the more distant antecedent God....A testimony to the one true God seems more in harmony with the final warning against idols than a demonstration of the divinity of Christ."
There are countless scriptures that disprove that Jesus is God.Jesus himself said "The Father is greater than I am"(John14:28).Jesus knew he wasnt God.His disciples knew he wasn't God.At Matt.16:15,16 Jesus ask his disciples:"You though,who do you say I am?".In answer Simon Peter said:"You are the Christ,the Son of the living God."
2006-07-23 04:32:05
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answer #6
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answered by lillie 6
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God is One. There is no Trinity. Jesus is a prophet of God, and like all his fellow prophets, he is a human being. We love him, and believe in him, and affirm all of his miracles, bestowed upon him as a favour from his Lord. He called for the worship of God alone and for righteousness - as every prophet of God has done. However, his pure monotheistic message was gradually changed by 'Christians' into a polytheistic one, by transforming Jesus(the servant of God, into a mythological God-incarnate figure to be worshipped alongside God All-Mighty.
Jesus was in a mother's womb. He needed nutrition; he was born and grew up to be a man.A man who needs to eat, walk, sleep, rest, etc.. cannot have Divine Attributes because he is in need and God is Self-Sufficient
2006-07-22 16:06:44
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answer #7
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answered by BeHappy 5
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No, because it says "And we are in union with the true one, BY MEANS of Jesus Christ" .. Otherwise, it would just say 'we are in union with the true one, jesus christ'. Further on may be the part that is confusing, where it says "..This is the true God and life everlasting" However, that isnt referring to Jesus Christ. Although he was mentioned last, the overall sentence was mainly talking about Jehovah God. So "We are in union with the true one, by means of his Son Jesus Christ, this is the true God everlasting" So 'this is the true God etc.' means The one we are in union with through Jesus Christ is the True God. Lol a little confusing, but I hope its clear my meaning :)
2006-07-22 11:07:28
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answer #8
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answered by twisterz021 3
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John 1: 29-34
This might help you.
John 3: 16-17
I have to say, you did a good job getting folks to open their Bibles as well! Good Job!
Good Luck and God Bless!
2006-07-22 11:11:27
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answer #9
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answered by yeppers 5
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yes! Jerimiah 10:10
John 17:3
1st John 5:20
John 3:33
2006-07-22 11:07:57
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answer #10
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answered by helpme1 5
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no jesus is not the true God.and if u think about it.....if Jesus really did give up his like for his people then what about all the other people before him?did they just NOT have a God?did they have no religion? what about them?
if Jesus was the true God then he would have come A LOT sooner then when he did.
2006-07-22 11:09:29
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answer #11
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answered by Rana* 2
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