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like West bank & Syrian Jawlan &Southern Lebanon

2006-07-22 05:20:06 · 17 answers · asked by ICE-T 2 in Politics & Government Military

17 answers

no. after the fall of the ottoman empire the british were occupying palestine. after wwII, when the allied forces were carving out the new world order there was something called the un partition plan. there was to be an arab land and a jewish land. the arabs didn't accept the deal. in 1948 there was a war of independance. Israel won. this is all basic info.

there were succesive wars after that gaining and losing lands, the gaza strip etc. in fact the jews pulled out of southern lebenon...Hizboallah and Hamas do not accept the idea of jews there period.

2006-07-22 05:29:45 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

The Jewish-Arab conflict in the Middle East is a struggle between two groups for possession of the land. It will be won by whoever is the most powerful and tenacious. The thing is, though: both sides should be left to fight with their own resources. I certainly do not want to contribute any of MY money to that fight, especially when my money is going to help the side that I least care for.

My concern with the Middle East conflict is the result of my forced contributions to Israel through my federal taxes. When America no longer backs Israel financially or militarily, I will forget about the Middle East and have not a care about which side wins and which side loses.

But, until then, I'm cheering for the Arabs.

2006-07-22 06:24:26 · answer #2 · answered by David S 5 · 0 0

yes

to all answerers to that question :

don't you ever compare the istablishment of israel with the istablishment of america , because : when america was istablished, there was no international law that prevents countries from either war or occuping other countries , BUT , when israel istablished at 1948 , it was after the istablishment of the united nations , which charter approved by all civilized nations in the whole planet , and it was approved that war is prohipited , billigerant occupation of any territory is refused and forbidden , no matter how the invading forces call it ... so the istablishment of israel was illigal , the way it was istablished by was by terrorising arab palastinians poor villigers to either sell or run away from their lands untill the zionists got a land big enough to istablish a country

after istablishment (illigal) they got more palastinian lands by war in 1948 , 1956 wars

then at 1967 war , israel occupied jerosalem for the first time (illigaly too) and took new lands from its neighbours this time ( Egypt , Syria , Lebanon and Jordan) and as they used to they started to build there settlments and get their civilians to settle down at those new lands ( it was proved illigal by the security councel resolutions no 424 , 338 ) ( even USA the only blind supporter to israel couldent veto those resolutions because the situation was opvious )

until now they are occupying the golan hights (about third syria , and they were pulled back from south lebanon by the continuos strikes by Hizbullah ( the terrorist as THEY call him and anyone stand for them ) but kept sheba farms till now )

now i ask americans why do you use that logic , like it is normal to invade or aggeresively occupy another country ?

is that because you know your country is too strong that nobody can invade it?

are you making a new international law ?

didn't you now that the world agreed after WW2 of it is illigal to war or aggressive occupation to any territory , whatever the reasons are ?

if someday , you gone weaker , and got invaded by China for example , will you accept that logic i red here ?" will your freedum fighters called terrorists by the chineese media which inflwent the world media , and by the chineise president "George W. Chan" and japan say in cold blood " China has the right to defend itself against american terrorists , every nation has the right to defend itself"?

would it be ok for you taking america , invading it , would it be legal to you ?

2006-07-22 08:19:36 · answer #3 · answered by amgo 3 · 0 0

Actually in 1948 the land by the Gaza strip, even Israel's land wasn't wanted by anyone. The English owned it. They gave it to Israel. Jordan fought and occupied the gaza strip. The UN wanted Jordan to give it to Palestine. They refused. Israel ended up winning the strip during the four day war. Now Jordan and other Arab nations, want Israel to give it to Palestine. They refused when they had it, but they don't want Israel to have it. Israel tried to give it. But really they don't want the land, they wouldn't be happy with just the land. Arabs want Israel gone. They want to annihilate them off the face of the earth. Iran just said that. Israel has the right to defend itself. Just as we do and any other country.

2006-07-22 05:31:55 · answer #4 · answered by sunny 3 · 0 0

It is irrelevant to try to go back in history to determine who stepped first on that particular plot of land. What IS relevant is the fact that, in this day and age of Western-dominated policies, a legitimate country recognized by the West was scratched out, its citizens disregarded, and an entirely new country and people were imposed upon this region. Some feel that it is their God-given religious right; after an entire history of persecution it is seemingly hard to blame them. However, one must realize that the very intolerance and forced imposition of beliefs that have caused Jewish persecution are now being imposed upon on another group of people.

2006-07-22 05:43:33 · answer #5 · answered by Eliza C 1 · 0 0

Do we really need to get into this argument? Techincally there were other peoples there long before Israelites and Arabs. And if that is so, shouldn't white, black, and hispanic people give up the Americans and give it back to the Native Americans?

This is from wikipedia:

The Mousterian Neanderthals were the earliest inhabitants of the area known to archaeologists, and have been estimated to date to c. 200,000 BCE. The first anatomically modern humans to live in the area were the Kebarans (conventionally c. 18,000 - 10,500 BCE, but recent paleoanthropological evidence suggests that Kebarans may have arrived as early as 75,000 BCE and shared the region with the Neanderthals for millennia before the latter died out). They were followed by the Natufian culture (c. 10,500 BCE - 8500 BCE), the Yarmukians (c. 8500 - 4300 BCE) and the Ghassulians (carbon dated c. 4300 - 3300 BCE). (Note that not one of these names appears in any classical sources, and were all devised as conventions in recent times by archaeologists, to refer to the lowest strata of remains.)

So techincally, someone stole it from non-human ancestors.... is that like stealing land from monkeys?

2006-07-22 05:24:31 · answer #6 · answered by Kats 5 · 0 0

well, the same can be said about istanbul, it was christian before the ottomans conquered it in 1486? and then we can go even further back to the time when mohammed got up an army and conquered mecca and such.

or what about muslims occupation of egypt? or of iran? those countries were not muslim until the muslims forcfully conquered them and either killed them or forcfully converted them.

and also the same you can say about the balkland region with bosnia and albania.

but funny how no one ever speaks of the muslim occupation.

jeez, israel is the size of new jersey, your saying muslims just haft to have that land?

they lost it, fair and square, now its been 58 years, get over it and move on.

2006-07-22 05:27:29 · answer #7 · answered by mricon 2 · 0 0

No God promised all of that land to them in the Abrahamic Covenant to Isaac. Ishmael the other son of Abraham did not receive this birthright, but is the father of the Arabic Nations. It is Israel's Birthright, ultimately that is what this whole Arab vs. Israel thing is about.

2006-07-22 05:26:55 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

It is not 'Arab' land.

The Palestinians are a Semitic people - not an Arabic people.

And this whole mess started back in 1947 - then the Palestinians tried to drive the Jews off of land to which they had legitimate title.

2006-07-22 05:41:22 · answer #9 · answered by MikeGolf 7 · 0 0

It is all an opinion of whose land it was to start with and how far back you want to go.

Of course would mexico today have a legal right to invade the US to take back Texas ??

Or maybe England should invade the US to take back the entire US because we revolted and took the US from them.

And of course the american indian could declare war on the US to regain thier land.

After WWII alot of boundries changed, you want Europe to go back to war over those?

2006-07-22 05:25:14 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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