Is it Bible based? If so, what is the scripture?
2006-07-21 14:38:00 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Family & Relationships ➔ Family
It probably originated from the idea of a dowry.
2006-07-21 14:40:30 · answer #1 · answered by K S 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That used to be the case in the past but more and more that is changing. Lots of parents of the bride and groom go in equally on the cost, or a lot of couples these days save up their money to have their wedding. The later lets them have more say so in the wedding because they are footing the tab. Then you can let the parents (both sets) chip in on the expense of the honeymoon.
2006-07-21 16:15:38 · answer #2 · answered by Sonie 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This custom is seen in many different cultures in Africa, Europe and Asia. In ancient times, brides and daughters were merely seen as "chattel" or property.
A marriage would be arranged to align two wealthy families and create an allegiance in times of war.
The groom would be gifted with a dowry as payment for taking on the responsibility of the bride and the marriage.
In addition, in many cultures, women were prohibited from owning land or inheriting from their father, so in the absence of a son, a son -in-law would inherit, and keep assets and lands in the family.
2006-07-21 16:14:03 · answer #3 · answered by jenna1384b2002 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The father was no longer was responsible for the bride, so it was a "pay off" on his responsibility, and the responsibility of his estate. He in a sense, gifted her inheritance at the time of the wedding and as the party of the wedding.
I know there is more to it than that, maybe someone else can fill us both in on the details.
2006-07-21 14:44:28 · answer #4 · answered by nik named mom 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
check out the website www.ourmarriage.com, it was so helpful to my brother and his bride and both sides of the family!
2006-07-21 15:02:18 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋