in the bible it says that man this, man that.
why does it have to all b about man
2006-07-21 00:35:01 · 15 answers · asked by louise 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
As many times as the bible has been rewritten
it could have very well said mankind.
That is how God perceives it,although with a
God fearing family it should be that the man hear from the Lord and pass it on to the wife,and the wife to the children.
You shouldn't be offended,Jesus said we are not male and female in heaven.Also it was woman that believed that Jesus rose when the angel told her and man that did not believe her.
2006-07-21 01:03:01 · answer #1 · answered by jackiedj8952 5 · 14⤊ 5⤋
Often that is the poor translation you are reading. The Greek word anthropos means human, but was traditionally translated man. As a plural, many modern translations render it in a gender neutral way. The singular is usually dictated by the context. The same with adelphos or "brother." The plural is now translated "brothers and sisters" unless the context dictates otherwise.
See NRSV, TNIV and NIrV
2006-07-21 00:47:26 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It might be that the word man means both men and women. The old meaning of the words might have been forgotten by the translators or they may never have known. In some languages the word for man goes both for a man but also for both sexes. In one language and translated to English the words are man and woman-man.
2006-07-21 00:46:58 · answer #3 · answered by Realname: Robert Siikiniemi 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
"Man" refers to "human," not "male" in most cases. For example, "first man on the moon" doesn't mean "first male on the moon," it means "first person on the moon."
But in the sections where it actually IS talking about males, it's just because the BIble was written several thousands of years ago, in which there was an insanely male-dominated society. And that's easily noticeable in the text.
2006-07-21 00:41:29 · answer #4 · answered by . 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
man in the Bible means all human beings both men and women
2006-07-21 01:24:06 · answer #5 · answered by boselydia 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because man is the top of the creation. He is the only being including so called angels, daemons, etc.... that have the ability to discriminate.
2006-07-21 00:41:18 · answer #6 · answered by PINKO P 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
'Man' refers to mankind...just as we call God, "He"....when He is so much more than that. We have to have a language to refer to people as a whole...or it gets too tedious. It actually comes down to that which is practical...and not to be taken literally in all respects...and is generally understood by most. I hope this makes sense to you...Peace.
2006-07-21 00:41:51 · answer #7 · answered by riverhawthorne 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
edsawyer nailed it. If you're wondering why they don't use woman, it's because when man is used in that particular context, it means humankind (that means all men, women, children, blacks, whites, asians, etc.) Are you a miserable feminist, perhaps? Get a life.
'nuff said?
2006-07-21 00:41:22 · answer #8 · answered by Mr. Peachy® 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because when the bible was written men were dominant over women ???
2006-07-21 00:39:12 · answer #9 · answered by star sailor 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
most of the time, "man" was just short for mankind
2006-07-21 00:41:23 · answer #10 · answered by joygpray4revival 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋