The history tells that the king of Egypt gave two slave women as gifts to prophet Muhammed, who kept one (Maria) for himself (it is said that he married her later), and gave the other woman (Sirin) as a gift to his friend (Hassan Ibn Thabit).
Was not that considered as violation for human rights of that woman (Sirin) to be given as a gift? why did not he simply free her instead of giving her as a GIFT?
2006-07-20 03:31:25 · 7 answers · asked by Bionimetiket 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
You must remember that you are talking of a time some 1500 years ago whereby there was no equality, woman in general were considered as inferior to men and not as equals as we do now.
Steve
2006-07-20 03:38:03 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
I haven't heard about it..but even if this took place it was done lon time ago when slavery was yet to be banned. Check it out not here but in some islamic site they have also asked questions that can be asked
2006-07-20 10:36:27 · answer #2 · answered by Russel 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I don't know this story, I know that thousands of people think that he was a good man and a prophet, he couldn't have been all that bad, he was human too!
2006-07-20 10:42:58 · answer #3 · answered by want2flybye 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
He loved to watch people "get it on."
2006-07-20 12:47:47 · answer #4 · answered by Golgo-13 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
http://www.answering-christianity.com/right_hand_possession.htm
this site is an answer to the question.
2006-07-20 10:36:47 · answer #5 · answered by wedjb 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
He played God as we all do.. time to time.
2006-07-20 10:35:02 · answer #6 · answered by lolitakali 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
no
2006-07-20 10:38:18 · answer #7 · answered by its me 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋