Was Jesus born into original sin? According to the explanation of Gospel of John 1:1-2 no, but why?

Question

I read Gospel of John Chapter 1 first few verses, and the explanation is that because he was "in the beginning" and the "word" that he - Jesus - was without original sin. I don't understand, since I asked earlier in the week was Jesus there when God ddecided to destory Sodom, and was told no Jesus wasn't born.

Is it that he was born to the "virgin" Mary? And this means he is without original sin? If so, why does Matthew go through the trouble of telling us the geneology?

Answer 1

Foremost, whoever answered you last week that Jesus wasn't born yet when Sodom was destroyed is mistaking. Before we prove that, let's see what John 1:1-2 means and let us support it with scriptural explanation.

John 1:1-2 reads:

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

The same was in the beginning with God.


Now, let us know Who is the Word according to Bible.

According Revelation 19:13,16 the Word is the King of kings and Lord of lords.

Revelation 17:14 also explains the King of kings is the Lamb.

John 1:29 affirms that Jesus is the Lamb of God. Therefore, the Word is Jesus.

Going back in John 1:1-2, we can now safely substitute.

In the beginning was the Jesus, and the Jesus was with God, and the Jesus was God.

Jesus was in the beginning with God.

NOW, the question is if Jesus was in the beginning is with God, is He in existence when Sodom was destroyed? Of course. In fact, before everything was made. He is.

According to I Corinthians 1:24 says that Christ is the Wisdom of God.

Going to Proverbs 8:12,22-30 proves that Jesus was already there with the Father (confirming what is written in John :1-2) even before anything was made.

Now, the question about original sin. The concept about original sin is that a new born baby inherits the sin of his parent which comes from Adam and Eve. This is NOT BIBLICAL. The Bible explicitly said that it can't be the case as written in Ezekiel 18:20.

The soul that sinneth, it shall die. The son SHALL NOT BEARthe iniquity of the father, neither shall the father bear the iniquity of the son: the righteousness of the righteous shall be upon him, and the WICKEDNESS of the wicked SHALL BE UPON HIM.

Isn't it very clear?

Answer 2

Explanation Of John 1

Answer 3

As a spirit Jesus was around before the creation of the earth.

He was born as a man of Mary and the Holy Spirit, therefore He did not have any original sin.

Two genealogies are given for Jesus, one through Joseph and one through Mary. His genealogy is given because it was an important point to the Jews and prophecy, because the Messiah was to come from the family of King David. Jesus was not only in David's line of descent, but also Mary's (to top it off).

Answer 4

Jesus was born without original sin because the sin seed is passed through the father. This is why is was so important that the Savior be born to a virgin.

Answer 5

Jesus wasn't born with original sin because

1. He was of virgin birth

2. His Father was God (Also without sin.)

Matthew goes through the geneology because Matthew was writing to the Jews of the time. To them, ancestory meant a LOT. Joseph was Jesus earthly father and Jesus took on his geneology, according to jewish custom. Matthew was showing that Jesus was of the liniage of the Messiah.

Answer 6

Its not just that Mary was a virgin, but she was also the "immaculate conception", which means she also was born without sin, and so could have a child who didn't inherit it.

The whole genealogy thing was to show how Jesus' birth and heritage fit in with the prophecies of from where the Chist would come from.

Answer 7

Jesus did not have original sin because yes he was born of an upright virgin AND the paternal was spirit coming upon Mary. The spirit was a part of God who is sin less himself. The geneology "proves" that Jesus comes from the line of Judah which fulfills prohecy from the Old Testament. As far as Jesus being there at Sodom and Gomorrah (sp?), technically Jesus was not born. However, if you go into the whole trinity concept technically Jesus was there. He says "I and the Father are One," and of course the whole discourse of John 1. Jesus also says, "If you have seen me, you have seen my Father." If you believe part of it, you gotta believe all of it. In Jewish law it says of prophets if one false word comes out of their mouth to stone them and discount all they say. Of Jesus the Bible says in phrophecy "no deceit was found in His mouth."

Answer 8

The original sin was committed by Adam he was given all authority to rule from God Eve was his helpmate. Eve was deceived Adam openly rebelled so original sin started with Adam whom the authority was given, from that point mans nature or tendencies turned from God hence we have a sin nature tendencies to rebel from God.
If Adam would have spoke for his wife and covered her we would not be stuck in this mess. It is the original sin nature that condemns all men but our sins we commit are from us. If there was no original sin nature the Jesus would not have needed to die for our sin all we would have to do is just live a sinless life.

Jesus being born from Mary using the flesh free from mans original sin neuter had to live a sinless life in order to fulfill Gods plan.

The lineage given in Matthew was to show how God had not chosen Solomon’s line to the throne, it ended with Joseph. Proving the prophecy God made against Jehoiakim Jeremiah 22, that His seed should not sit on the throne.
Mary's line though it ends with Joseph (tradition does not allows the women’s genealogy to end with her it must always end in her husband), in Luke 3 promotes the line of Nathan, David’s third son in four born in Jerusalem 2Sa. 5:14 allowing King David seed to still be heir the throne and allowing prophesy to be fulfilled.

As far as Jesus being there in Sodom yes He was, He was the one who spoke with Abraham. He was the pre incarnate Christ. All dealings with the Jews was through Christ that is why when Jesus was asked was he greater than Moses and He said in John 8:58 "Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM."
The I AM He is referring to is YHWH that is why the Jews wanted to kill him he was saying He is YHWH.

Answer 9

Matthew was reporting a legal lineage. Not a biological one.
According to that faith, Jesus was without original sin because he was born of a virgin.

Answer 10

It relies upon on what you think your mum and dad did even as they conceived you. i will make it clearer: Did they love one yet another? Did they used one yet another? there's a distinction, you comprehend, the most important distinction each of the Bible is about. the tale advised interior the Sacred Gospel on the challenge of the more youthful couple all of us comprehend as Mary and Joseph changed into meant to describe how 's like loving someone, because the descendants of Adam had forgotten this for the reason that they left Paradise. unique sin has to do with concern and obedience to boot as impunity and insist between guy and lady; Joseph depended on Mary in spite the sheerest info: being pregnant (an Adam descendant may have only thrown stones antagonistic to her till eventually demise and regarded impatiently for another lady to marry); Mary stumbled on herself ovulating for the first time and did not run to inform her guy about the angel (freeing factors she experienced as a visit from the severe), she kept it secret (dazzling for a sheepish daughter of Eve) till Joseph received her in his abode and knew (penetrated) her. Love takes away unique sin. Jesus changed into the fruit of love, therefore...