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Jesus is "A" god, a spiritual being, in heaven with his Father, Almighty God. Trinitarians have removed the letter "a" from John 1;1 to falsely prove their theory. Just because it has been promoted for a very long time does not make it correct. The book of John has many scriptures that separate Jesus from his Father. Why should they all be nullified because of one [removed]letter in John 1;1.

2006-07-19 22:07:36 · 7 answers · asked by pugjw9896 7 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

7 answers

Well, many see the sacrifice of Jesus as a metaphor for God experiencing the suffering and toil of human beings (therefore redeeming them), so the connection of God and Jesus may not be clear. However, the Bible is very implicit that Jesus is the SON of the Lord, whom the Lord sacrificed to cleanse humanity of the wages of sin.

2006-07-19 22:13:28 · answer #1 · answered by Shane S 2 · 1 0

John 17:3,5,24 [ Jesus was with God before the world was];
Job.38:4-7 [ All the angels were there as earth is focus];
Matt.28:18 [All power is given [WHO IS GIVER ], me in heaven and on earth Heb.1:1-13; Isa.9:6,7; Rev.20:1-6,12,13[ God has given him power over all flesh and to save the world and all in it possible and make all things new in 1000 years, The LORD God of host, the Father of Jesus and us, John 20:17; and the God of Jesus and us has performed this 1Cor.15:22-28; When all is perfect, we are all in the kingdom of God.

2006-07-20 06:25:01 · answer #2 · answered by jeni 7 · 0 1

If Father is 'a' god, Jesus is 'a' god, Holy Spirit is 'a' god, then there are three gods. That's so inconsistent!

There is only ONE God.

The Father is not Jesus and Jesus is not the Father, the same goes that the Holy Spirit is not Jesus and also not the Father.

But the they are one God. Just as Jesus said " The father and I are one"

The Father is completely and wholly God,
Jesus is completely and wholly God,
and Holy Spirit is completely and wholly God.

When it is stated that Jesus is with God, it means that Jesus is with God the Father.

2006-07-23 18:47:00 · answer #3 · answered by frankenstein3000 3 · 0 1

See! The bible must be true, because it says "Many will come in my name, but believe them not. Seriously, blasphemy is a very serious thing. Jesus was with God before the foundation of the world and Jesus was God in human form, but first he was in heaven before being here on earth.

2006-07-20 05:17:07 · answer #4 · answered by Godb4me 5 · 0 1

God the Father , the Son and the Holy Spirit are one and the same

2006-07-20 06:24:04 · answer #5 · answered by Cirno 7 · 0 1

Your right I've had nothing to with that old lunatic since he started molesting my sisters

2006-07-20 05:12:04 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

In John10 : 30we find that Jesus says "I and my Father are one." This verse, according to Christians, shows clearly that God and Jesus Christ are the same. Also we read in John20 :17, "Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God." Here Jesus clearly states that there is distinction between him and God. In other words that Jesus himself has a God. Also Matthew27 : 46"And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? That is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" Here Jesus Christ cries in loud voice calling his God.

These are two different and opposite ways Jesus relates himself to God. The first one that he and God are one, and the second is that he refers to a higher authority than him which is his God. Now assuming that both are correct statements then we have a contradiction. If, for example, Jesus Christ was God himself as in John 10: 30then it would be more appropriate for him to say "...and to myself, and your God." in John20 :17, or "Myself, Myself, why hast thou forsaken me?" in Matthew27 :46. If, on the other hand, one of them is wrong and the other is correct then we have to discard the one that we believe to be incorrect. Since God does not make mistakes then we no longer believe that the Bible is the word of God (because we believe that there is no contradiction in God's words).

A third possibility is that we have to look at how we can interpret the words of Jesus in those verses. As far as John20 : 17and Matthew27 :46, it is very clear that Jesus has a God whom he prays to and Whom has a higher authority than him. We can back this up with other verses from the bible that say, "I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me." (John5 :30). Also Jesus says, "...for my Father is greater than I" (John14 :28).

If Jesus and God were the same then he would not have said what he has said in the above verses. Now, the only verse that can be interpreted is John 10:30. It is the only one that does not render itself clear. The only way John10 : 30could be interpreted such that it does not contradict all the other verses is by saying that Jesus meant that he and God have something in common.

To find out what the common grounds are, we have to look at the context which this verse is in:
John10 : 27"My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me:"
John10 : 28"And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand."
John10 : 29"My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand."
John10 : 30"I and my Father are one."

As can be seen from John10 : 28and John10 : 29that Jesus is telling the Jews that he and God share something in common, and that is; that no one can pluck the faithful from either of their hands. This is what is common between Jesus and God in this case, and not that Jesus is himself God, or that they are exactly the same.

Let us go on to see what Jesus says in John10 :
-John10 : 31"Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him."
-John10 : 32"Jesus answered them, Many good works have I showed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me?"
-John 10: 33"The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God."
-John10 : 34"Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?"
-John10 : 35"If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;"
-John 10: 36"Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?"
-John10 : 37"If I do not the works of my Father, believe me not."
-John 10: 38"But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him."
-John10 : 39"Therefore they sought again to take him: but he escaped out of their hand,"
-John10 : 40"And went away again beyond Jordan"

In John10 : 31we see that the Jews misunderstood what Jesus had meant by "I and my Father are one." (John10 :30). And in John10 : 33they accuse him of blasphemy. Now, had Jesus been God, or had he and God been one in a literal sense then he should not hesitate to clarify the matter at this point. Jesus at this point says, "Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?" What he is trying to say that if you call "I and my Father are one" blasphemy then you should call what is written in your law "Ye are gods" blasphemy also.

The reasoning here is that "Ye are gods" does not mean that you, the Jews, are Gods, it is rather an expression. It just means that you are godly people. The same with "I and my Father are one." It does not mean that I am God or that we are the same literally. It is just an expression. The same goes for calling himself "the Son of God." This statement should not be taken literally either.

The Holy Quran says, "...Nothing whatsoever (is there) like the like of Him, and He (alone) is All-Hearing and All-Seeing" (42 :11 ). Nothing at all is like God, not Moses, not Jesus, not Muhammad, and certainly nothing of His creation.


What About All These Verses?

After I discuss the above with my Christian brothers they ask me, "but what about the other verses that say Jesus is God?" and they show me some of them. Some of these verses are:
1. John8 : 58"Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am."

My Christian brothers here associate this verse to the words that God had said to Moses in the Old Testament when He said to him in Exodus3 :14 "And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you." What Jesus said is similar to what God had said to Moses therefore they are the same. (Of course Jesus does not say explicitly that he is God here, and I could show that what he meant was not that he was God, but I will leave this for another discussion.)

2. Matthew18 : 20"For where two or three are gathered together in my name, there am I in the midst of them."
Jesus here gives himself divine quality, being present as God.

3. Revelation1 : 17And when I saw him, I fell at his feet as dead. And he laid his right hand upon me, saying unto me, Fear not; I am the first and the last:
Revelation1 : 18I am he that liveth, and was dead; and, behold, I am alive for evermore, Amen; and have the keys of hell and of death.

Jesus here says that he is the first and the last. This is clearly a divine quality. Also he says that he has the keys of hell and of death. This is also a divine quality.

I really don't know how many more verses like these are available, but let us assume that there are more than that. I reply to them that what you showed me right now only backs me up even further, and before I explain how, I relate the following verse to them:
1. Mark13 :32 "But of that day and that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father."

It is shown here that God and only God and not the son (Jesus) has the knowledge of the time of the Judgment day. Jesus here denies his divinity (since God knows everything).

2. John5 : 19"Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise."
Here Jesus also says that his powers do not belong to him, and he alone, without the help of God, can do nothing. Again Jesus is denying divine qualities.

3. John5 : 30"I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me."
Here Jesus also denies any divine qualities. He (Jesus), without God can do nothing.

4. John20 : 17"Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God."

Also,
Matthew 27: 46"And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?"
Here Jesus, in the first verse, says that he has a God, and in the second he cries out for his God. Surely God does not have a god. Jesus clearly shows that he has a God and that he is not divine.

5. John5 : 37"And the Father himself, which hath sent me, hath borne witness of me. Ye have neither heard his voice at any time, nor seen his shape."

Jesus clearly states that no one had even heard God's voice, and not even seen his shape. This is Jesus talking, and his voice heard and his shape is seen to those he is with at the moment, so it must be not him that he is referring to as the Divine character, and that means that they (Jesus and God) are not the same.

6. John14 : 28"Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I".
Here Jesus also says that God is greater that he is. Again he is disclaiming divinity.

7. Matthew19 : 17"And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? There is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments."

When a man referred to Jesus by good master, Jesus replied to him by saying that there is only one good which is God. If Jesus cannot even claim that he is good, then why should he claim that he is God?

These are all verses from the bible; some show Christ to be God or having some qualities of God and others that show that he is not God and that he does not have divine qualities. Which are we to believe? Aren't these contradictions? I say to all my Christian brothers that brought me the verse that claim Christ's divinity, "now you have to explain to me how such a thing could be. What does all this mean?"

2006-07-20 05:38:06 · answer #7 · answered by Pure 2 · 0 1

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