If the sin sacrifice in leviticus is just an allusion to the future "real sacrifice", would christians have expected a female to do the job, since the sacrifice requires a female?
(e.g. leviticus 4:28)
Thanks for your insights
and please keep answers to 40 lines.
2006-07-17 20:07:18 · 5 answers · asked by Indecisive 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Lev 4:27 And if any one of the people of the land shall sin through ignorance, doing any of those things that by the law of the Lord are forbidden, and offending,
Lev 4:28 And shall come to know his sin: he shall offer a she goat without blemish.
Lev 4:29 And he shall put his hand upon the head of the victim that is for sin: and shall immolate it in the place of the holocaust.
Lev 4:30 And the priest shall take of the blood with his finger, and shall touch the horns of the altar of holocaust: and shall pour out the rest at the foot thereof.
This passage indicates the need for a sacrifice which is to make up for a minor, unintentional offense.
As people were often ignorant of the fine points of the law in those days ( people still are today) the sacrifice for this class of offense was a lot like paying a modern parking ticket.
God understood the need for the people's adherence to the law, but did not want them to needlessly waste scarce, expensive resources.
Hence the more abundant, less expensive, female victim was allowed to be sacrificed.
All sacrifices in the old testament provide an antetype for the new testament, perfect sacrifice of Christ.
Not all sacrificial victims do.
2006-07-17 21:17:15 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Bulls, goats and other animals and food stuff were used for sacrifices in the OT, a female goat in the given reference. What would you think about the bulls, then? Sacrifices were also burnt! What would you read into that? Stop reading between lines and honestly seek the truth. The sacrifices in general were a fore-shadow of the perfect sacrifice of the "Lamb of God", Jesus. His sacrifice can make you clean before God, if you trust in Him who offered Himself for your sins.
2006-07-17 20:25:50 · answer #2 · answered by lalskii 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No.
The old testament prophecies concerning Christ refer to him as a man. The Jews in Jesus' time knew the time was near, and that he would be a man. Here is just one of the many prophecies.
Isaiah 53:7 (King James Version)
7He was oppressed, and he was afflicted, yet he opened not his mouth: he is brought as a lamb to the slaughter, and as a sheep before her shearers is dumb, so he openeth not his mouth.
2006-07-17 20:29:16 · answer #3 · answered by rangedog 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yeah i know that our g-d is completely different from the so-called christain gods, but from a christian perspective its the same god, right? its just they make our god appear to have mulitple personality disorder, haha.
peace max
2006-07-18 15:21:01 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
i think it meant female goat
2006-07-17 20:11:19 · answer #5 · answered by 0110010100 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋