2006-07-17 18:04:17 · 11 answers · asked by jacquie 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
Sanskrit is possibly ancestral to Indo-Aryan languages of the Indo-European family in the way Greek is ancestral to Indo-European languages (of the Indo-European family), but unrelated to other language familes such as Altaic, Dravidian or Sino-Tibetan.
2006-07-17 18:19:53 · answer #1 · answered by Nerdly Stud 5 · 2⤊ 1⤋
no, it is not true. all languages probably originate from a single ancestor language in Africa about 100,000 years ago. Sanskrit is the ancestor ONLY of the Indo-Aryan languages of north India
2006-07-17 23:50:35 · answer #2 · answered by Taivo 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
German may have had a relationship to Sanskrit some where in the distant past...?
2006-07-17 18:11:52 · answer #3 · answered by JonBoy 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No. Cuneiform was one of the earliest languages that has been found and it is different than sanskrit.
2006-07-17 18:10:06 · answer #4 · answered by ???? 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
All languages originated from our Creator, God.
“The oldest preserved literature in the world was written in the Sumerian language.”
2006-07-17 18:14:02 · answer #5 · answered by sentrasersr20de 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Most of the languages..But there are also languages like Tamil which has been in existence for more than 3000 years and has its own identity..
2006-07-17 18:08:18 · answer #6 · answered by salapan 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
No. To say that is crazy.
2014-09-18 12:35:05 · answer #7 · answered by Gunzo 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
most of european and asian, yes...
2006-07-17 22:46:54 · answer #8 · answered by esther c 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no it is tamil,
2016-03-29 10:07:19 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
no.
2006-07-17 18:07:20 · answer #10 · answered by jezebelring 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋