We know that lust in any form and in any situation and circumstances
is a sin according to Christianity. Well, according to the epistles pre-marital sex is also a sin(so having sex without lust before marriage
is forbidden too). Sex is just for procreation(that implies the absence of lust) and not for enjoyment(if you don't have lust you won't enjoy
licking your wife's breast or sucking her mouth for nothing). Strictly
speaking you can marry a man or a woman but you can't lust after him or her. THIS DOESN'T MAKE ANY SENSE. No personal whimsical interpretation please. In the gospels Jesus clearly said DO NOT LUST(He didn't mention that you can lust in certain circumstances).
2006-07-17
12:00:22
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25 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
answer to angeltress:
ho ho. does that contradict the NT. I am sure lots of contradictions in the bible. and don't forget that your Jesus nullified many OT laws.
2006-07-17
12:06:23 ·
update #1
answer to apmresearch@...:
this is another contradiction. i talked with many christians and they told me that the OT laws are nor applicable to them because Jesus nullified them.
2006-07-17
13:10:27 ·
update #2
Hebrews 13:4 Marriage is honourable in all, and the bed undefiled: but whoremongers and adulterers God will judge.
1 Corinthians 7:8-9 I say therefore to the unmarried and widows, it is good for them if they abide even as I. But if they cannot contain, let them marry: for it is better to marry than to burn.
Where does it say that sex is just for procreation? Chapter and Verse please.
Sex in marriage is fine, knock yourself out. You can have sex 10x a day if you wanted, if you're married...Of course the partner would have to be willing, LOL.... Lusting after another is sinful, read the Song of Solomon, lusting after his wife, is not. He desired her breasts, and other things. Sex outside marriage is a sin. Period.
2006-07-17 12:13:10
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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in modern english, lust means an obssesive desire especially sexually. However, the Bible was not written in English, it was writtten in Hebrew. One would have to find that passage in the orignal text and check the translation to be sure. Further, words tend to have their meaning evolve and change over time. So a translation to the word "Lust" 200 years ago may not be a very good translation today.
That said, assume the Hebrew translates over fairly cleanly to the modern term Lust. I believe the key is "obsessive" desire. There is nothing wrong with sexuality in marriage. There is a plenty of sex to be found in the Bible even if it does not seem that way at times. The passage "and she lay at his feet all night" is believed to imply sex, not litterally laying at a man's feet. But, I digress - back to the point - it is possible to have desire for your spouse and enjoy sex with your spouse without being obsessive or lustful about it.
2006-07-17 12:13:57
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answer #2
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answered by Madhouse 3
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Lust means that you want sex outside of marriage. Where does it say you cannot have sex with your wife or husband and that you cannot enjoy it? Lust is the unhealthy looking at sex with no restraint, not caring if it is with your wife or another woman or man as the case may be. Better look up lust in the dictionary and you will find that is going the unhealthy desire but nowhere does it say you cannot want to have sex with your spouse. Normal sexual desire is fine but lust is the unhealthy desire for forbidden things.
2006-07-17 12:09:15
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answer #3
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answered by ramall1to 5
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A lot of the views concerning the enjoyment of sex came out of the dark ages, not the Bible. Lust is compared to adultery, but you can't comit adultery with the person you're married to. I always assumed that meant that lusting after your wife is fine.
2006-07-17 12:08:03
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answer #4
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answered by strausseman 2
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I can't believe how ppl misinterpret scripture. Lust was used in the context of doing something illicit. Since marriage is legal, and since Scripture also indicates that anything goes in the marriage bedroom then I believe lust does not apply in marriage. It may be called something else but it doesn't apply in legal areas such as marriage. Remember it is possible to lust after objects as well.
2006-07-17 12:08:28
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answer #5
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answered by child_of_the_lion 3
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Your last statement is the on I will reply to;
Where do people get the idea that Christ nullified the LAW, when He stated plainly I have not come to do away with the Law but to fulfill it.
The purpose of the Law was to reconcile man and God.
2006-07-17 12:43:57
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answer #6
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answered by drg5609 6
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I don't know what Bible you read. But, my friend, what a man and wife does in they're house is nobodies business. God put man and wife together to have fun and enjoyment. As long as it does not cause a spiritual problem, what makes you think it is a problem?
2006-07-17 12:38:54
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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You haven't actually asked a question here.
But, as I understand it, sexual love is a natural thing between a man and woman, which is best if kept between just those two in marriage.
Lust is understood to be something which occurs when somebody just wants another person's body, and doesn't love them in the way they should love them in a permanent relationship.
2006-07-17 12:07:00
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answer #8
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answered by mia2kl2002 7
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I don't think that all of the rules about sex and lusting include within a marriage.
2006-07-17 12:32:49
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answer #9
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answered by proudmatriarch 4
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Sorry, but the Bible was written by priests.
They aim to take the joy out of everything.
Now, the trick here is to realize that what they say doesn't exactly mean what to do.
2006-07-17 12:05:53
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answer #10
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answered by Andi Rolf 5
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