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Makes no sense.

2006-07-17 11:30:04 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Languages

But English is descended partly from Latin too. OH and I don't call myself American because I AM English, but that's compltely different anyway because it's based on location, not language.

Wouldn't it be better to call them Central American?

2006-07-17 11:36:02 · update #1

7 answers

The English word Latino (Latina is the feminine form) derives from the Spanish word latinoamericano [1](the Portuguese word is latino-americano) and most often refers to inhabitants of Latin America, and their descendents living outside of Latin America. Its usual connotation is Ibero-American or Spanish American; Francophone Canadians are not normally referred to as Latino, even though they speak a Romance language.

The concept of "Latin America" was coined by the French in the 1800s as a means of legitimizing French influence over the Spanish-speaking countries of the Americas; compare Latin Europe. Napoleon III, cited Amérique Latine and Indochine as goals for expansion during his reign. He proposed the Monarchy in Mexico headed by the Austrian Archduke Maximillian or Maximilian I of Mexico. The term emphasized a common culture and history of the Latin-speaking peoples, as opposed to the Germanic language-speaking countries of "Anglo-America".

2006-07-17 11:42:18 · answer #1 · answered by soleluna 3 · 2 0

Because they speak Spanish, which is a Latin language -- that is, a language that originated from Latin.

The term Latin America is used to differentiate it from Anglo-Saxon America (the USA and Canada, although in Canada some people speak French too).

2006-07-17 18:35:35 · answer #2 · answered by thecatphotographer 5 · 0 0

Because their languages DO descend from Latin.

2006-07-17 18:33:40 · answer #3 · answered by silvercomet 6 · 0 0

Because they are from Latin America, thus they are Latinos.

Why are you called an American when you speak English?

2006-07-17 18:33:43 · answer #4 · answered by monkersmom 3 · 0 0

It's because Spanish and Portuguese(ps.In Brazil, people speak Portuguese only! not Spanish)are languages who were originated from the Latin language.

2006-07-17 18:39:58 · answer #5 · answered by LJ 1 · 0 0

the Latin(Roman) Empire started in Italy so as a logical fact the Italians would be more"latins" than hispanics...

2006-07-17 19:34:21 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Great question.....

2006-07-17 18:33:07 · answer #7 · answered by Sir Excalibur 2 · 0 0

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