"Son of Man" is a term mostly from the old testament, referring to the Jewish Messiah, but also appears in the New Testament, I believe one of the Apostles refers to Jesus as "Son of Man." On a personal note, I think it's interesting that both the old and new testament refer to the Messiah as son of "man" yet, what Christians believe is that he was the son of God, and a virgin woman. Go figure?!
2006-07-17 09:54:50
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answer #1
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answered by ? 5
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The Bible refers to Jesus as two things: The Son of Man, because He took a human body like every man and lived among men; also, the Son of God, because He is in truth the Son of God. Jesus was with God before the creation of the world. He was born through the Holy Spirit from the Virgin Mary and did not inherit the sinful nature of Mankind, and thus He was the perfect vessel of sacrifice, the Redeemer of Mankind, the Lamb that takes away the sins of the world.
2006-07-17 16:57:26
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answer #2
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answered by lonelyspirit 5
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Jesus
2006-07-17 16:47:59
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Many times it refers to Jesus Christ (Matthew 18:11 For the Son of man is come to save that which was lost. ),
while other times it will refer to a certain individual (Ezekial 33:10 Therefore, O thou son of man, speak unto the house of Israel; Thus ye speak, saying, If our transgressions and our sins be upon us, and we pine away in them, how should we then live?) God is speaking to Ezekial here.
To know the difference, just read the context.
By the way, you'll find the old testament refers "son of man" to humans most of the time. The New Testament nearly always is speaking of Jesus Christ.
2006-07-17 16:57:58
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answer #4
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answered by EyeStudy 2
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Depends on the reference. Son of man can refer to humanity as a whole or Jesus.
2006-07-17 16:54:05
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answer #5
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answered by wiregrassfarmer 3
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You have misunderstood the Hebrew and Aramaic idiom here. Expressions with "son of" are often used to speak of someone's basic NATURE, or some major characteristic. Thus, Jesus called two of his followers "sons of thunder" (apparently they were hot-tempered), he referred to Judas Iscariot as the "son of perdition", and accused Jewish leaders of making others "twice the sons of hell" that they were. And in the early church a Levite named Joseph was called "Barnabas" meaning "son of encouragement" for the way he served others. Obviously none of these people were LITERALLY sons of abstract ideas and inanimate objects!
In the same way, the Old Testament "son of man", in its simplest use, means simply "human being" or "mortal man". But sometimes it was used to mean a bit more. So in the prophecy of Daniel (in chapter 7) Daniel has a vision of four wild beasts, whom he is told represent four kingdoms that would conquer the world (these point to ancient Babylon, Persia, Greece and Rome). He then sees a heavenly scene in which "one like a son of man" comes in GLORIOUS dress before God's throne and is given the authority to TAKE the rule from all the beasts. This is all rooted in the picture laid out at creation itself (in Genesis 1) where God gives the first man the role of ruling over and subduing all the wild creatures. The point of Daniel is that the order of creation had been upset by human rebellion, BUT God promises that a glorious man will come to RESTORE that good order of creation. At the same time, the great glory of this "one like a son of man" suggests he may be something MORE.
In the New Testament, Jesus himself refers to his own coming death, resurrection and future glory (REIGNING over the earth) by calling himself "the son of man". In other words, it is HE who comes as the "TRUE man", as a "second Adam" (what Paul later calls him) to become THE King and restore to humanity what was lost with our rebellion. Other places in the New Testament also use this language and very specifically tell us that they are speaking about JESUS (see especially Hebrews 2 and Revelation 1).
2006-07-17 19:57:57
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answer #6
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answered by bruhaha 7
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Jesus.
2006-07-17 16:48:31
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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It means human being.
As in psalms 146, "do not trust in the son of man for he holds no salvation".
I have no idea where the idea that it refers to the messiah or jesus or whatever originated.
2006-07-17 17:03:30
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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Depends on who you ask and in which book in the Bible it is in. Sometimes it refers to men, other times it refers to Jesus. Just like son of God sometimes refers to men, other times angels, and other times Jesus.
It's all just nonsense.
2006-07-17 16:56:45
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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Most of the time, it refers to Jesus, but there are times in the old testament when it means human children who are sinful.
2006-07-17 16:51:24
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answer #10
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answered by Marty 4
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