"None of them is" or "None of them are"?

Question

Which phrase is correct? 10 points for the first correct answer!

Hint: Most people get this one wrong.

cpinatsi, good for you! When the 24 hrs are up, you get the 10 pts!

"None" means "not one." Re-word the phrase again, this time using "not one" instead of "none."

Not one of them is....
Not one of them are...

The first is correct. We're not talking about "them," we're talking about "not one" of them. It's singular. so "Not one of them is" is the correct phrase.

Answer 1

IS the verb is referring to the word none, which is singular.
I KNOW I am right!

Answer 2

I hope you read this far down and are willing to carefully consider the following.

I have to agree with garwy here. The "rule" you are applying, like too many grammarians' rules (e.g., "don't ever split infinitives", "don't end a sentence/clause with a preposition"), ignores English history and usage and tries to settle every instance with a nice neat logical pattern. But the logic of language isn't always so neat. (It is also much richer and more dynamic than some grammarians give it credit for.)

Also, in this case, the basis of your claim is that "none" is the equivalent of "not one". But IS it? always? What about cases where it is used in the same way as "not ANY"? These are not quite the same! (more on that below)

In any case, it's important to beware of the "genetic fallacy" (that the origins of something define and limit its current meaning/use...). Frankly, a word's etymological origins are do not determine everything. Words change in usage over time, according to the needs of the language, and not always according to "grammatical logic". So, even if "none" was historically derived from "not one" that does NOT mean that the word is the absolute equivalent of "not one" and must follow all the same rules.

Note that "none is" and "none are" have been used since Old English (and by the best writers!). Carefully used, each has a slightly different emphasis.

See the following:

"Usage Note: It is widely asserted that none is equivalent to no one, and hence requires a singular verb and singular pronoun: None of the prisoners was given his soup. It is true that none is etymologically derived from the Old English word n, "one," but the word has been used as both a singular and a plural noun from Old English onward. The plural usage appears in the King James Bible as well as the works of John Dryden and Edmund Burke and is widespread in the works of respectable writers today. Of course, the singular usage is perfectly acceptable. The choice between a singular or plural verb depends on the desired effect. Both options are acceptable in this sentence: None of the conspirators has (or have) been brought to trial. When none is modified by almost, however, it is difficult to avoid treating the word as a plural: Almost none of the officials were (not was) interviewed by the committee. None can only be plural in its use in sentences such as None but his most loyal supporters believe (not believes) his story. "
http://www.thefreedictionary.com/none

See also the excellent discussions at:
http://www.lydbury.co.uk/grammar/forum_posts.asp?TID=11254&get=last
http://forum.wordreference.com/archive/index.php?t-91606.html

The latter compares instances where "There is none" and "There are none" are appropriate --

Are there any cars on the road?
There are none. (any cars - a multiple quantity)

Have we any bread left?
There is none. (any bread, a singular quantity)

Note the connection of "none" with "(not) ANY" mentioned above-- this isn't perfectly equivalent to "not one", despite the etymological connection of "one/ane" and "any". And so, unlike "not one", we can use "any" with PLURAL forms, as the question above --"ARE there any cars?" demonstrates.

Answer 3

grammar martinets would say 'none of them is' - and for the reason you have given. this is one possible correct answer.

but the final aribiter of what constitutes correct grammar for any language is what educated speakers actually say.

if you refer to the collins' corpus of english usage (which i shall not link to, since it is a subscription service) you will find that both of these forms are correct, since both are used in spoken and written english by authoritiative speakers. (there is a possible fine semantic distinction between the forms - this has also been pointed out by a previous answerer).

so both forms are correct (though i suspect this wasn't the answer you want to hear).

Answer 4

When u use 'none of' with a plural noun or pronoun,or a singular noun that refers to a group of people,u can use either a singular or plural form.I mean,both ofthem can be used

Answer 5

if you are looking for a gramatically correct answer then its 'none of them are', but none of them can also convey the meaning pretty clearly. To a person who doesnt care about the grammer, both usage wont affect

Answer 6

None of them are

Answer 7

None of them are

Answer 8

None of them IS....
none is like" not even one of them"...so it is said" IS".

Answer 9

both may be correct, depending on the situation

'is' - implies that not even one is......

'are' - it's about a group belonging to 'the whole'

Answer 10

None of them ARE...

more than one sweety!