Do you believe that it is possible for the eternal and timeless sacrifice of Jesus (God in the flesh) to have been applied to Mary before her conception if God wanted it to be that way?
The first woman was created by God without original sin.
Before Eve listened to the devil and sinned the first sin of mankind by saying yes to the devil, she was only called "woman".
Jesus called Mary "woman".
Mary said yes to God and no to the devil.
Remember that Eve was created without original sin.
Who do you believe was superior? Mary or Eve?
2006-07-15 07:02:17 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I did not say that Mary is God.
2006-07-15 07:30:14 · update #1
Mary was superior in my opinion. She gave birth to the Savior.
2006-07-15 07:06:30 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
Everyone from Adam and Eve to the last person that is born on this Earth is covered by Jesus sacrifice. Where in the bible does it ever say that Mary was without any sin, original or otherwise? Original sin was an invention of the Catholic Church as was the deification and praying to her and the myth that she was without any other children but Jesus. The only original sin that is found in the bible is the first sin that was comitted by Eve and then Adam. That is the original sin and we replicate it every day. So where do you find original sin in the bible? Nowhere!! Where do you find the deity of Mary? Nowhere!! Where do you find that you should pray to Mary or any other dead person for them to offer prayers for you to God? Nowhere!! All from the Catholic church and yet practiced by many that call themselves Protestant. Which is superior, Mary or Eve? Neither!! All have sinned and come short of the glory of God. Romans 3:23 Neither of them was without sin at some point in their lives, both are dead, not in HEaven as Catholics will proclaim and neither will get there till Jesus comes again for all of His people. 1 Thess 4:16-17. If they, as well as all those that have died before , are already in Heaven or Hell, as the case may be, what reason would there be for Jesus to come again for His people? He would not have to come here but only say the word and everyone would just be translated up to Heaven. But Jesus said He would come again to receive us to Himself that we may be where He is. John 14:1-3.
2006-07-15 14:24:59 · answer #2 · answered by ramall1to 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Your logic contains so many errors that it's difficult for us to know where to start responding.
First, the benefits of Christ's sacrifice do not apply to all eternally. For example, salvation will not be applied to people in Hell after the final judgment. The timeless aspect of the sacrifice is that it applies to all who have trusted in Jesus and His sacrifice. Therefore, the Protestant idea of salvation (faith w/o works) could not have applied to anyone prior to their act of the will. It COULD NOT have applied to anyone before they reach the "age of accountability."
Second, by claiming that Mary existed before her conception so that Christ's sacrifice could have applied to her requires you to believe in Origen's and Mormons' heresy of the pre-existence of souls.
Third, just because Eve was called a "woman" does not necessarily mean that everyone after her who answered to the name "woman" (from God's lips or the lips of others) must be free from the effects of individual sin. Yes, Eve and Mary have some things in common, but this does not necessitate that they have ALL things in common (or any randomly chosen trait).
Both Eve and Mary, like all other people (besides Jesus) did their share of things right and wrong. We know much more about Mary than Eve, but let's assume, generally speaking, they were both wonderful women, who both needed salvation like the rest of us.
2006-07-15 14:18:16 · answer #3 · answered by chdoctor 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Mary was just a woman who found favor in Gods eyes, and Eve was created as a help mate for Adam. Both are special enough to be mentioned in the bible, but with no Deity or special divinity.
2006-07-15 14:19:29 · answer #4 · answered by ? 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Mary was covered by the sacrifice of Jesus becuase before conception she was saved by looking forward to the coming Savior. We are saved byu the coming of the Savior.
Neither were superior. Both were just sinners. IMO
2006-07-15 14:06:28 · answer #5 · answered by Help 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Neither is superior as all people were created equal but Mary was chosen by God to be the mother of Christ. Therefore, she is considered most holy and truly blessed.
2006-07-15 14:10:41 · answer #6 · answered by Crystalis 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. The blood and sacrifice of Jesus was not applied to Mary BEFORE Jesus died.
Everyone before Jesus' death that has True Faith if they believe in the one that would come to atone for their sins. Everyone looked forward to this Messiah to take their sins away.
Everyone after Jesus' death that has True Faith l looks to Jesus' death on the cross too.
Christ's death paid the penalty for all Christians, once and for all. All that believed in the old testament, and present times, believe that Christ's blood is so powerful to take away all sins for Everyone that Believes and has True faith in him.
We stand sinless in God's eyes.
2006-07-15 14:20:36 · answer #7 · answered by Red-dog-luke 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
"all have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God"
outside of Christ's redemption....we are sinners and therefore doomed and guilty in the eyes of God. I don't think either are superior, as Mary was just a human who was chosen for an extraordinary task, just as David was chosen to be King, John the Baptist was chosen for his ministery, etc
2006-07-15 14:08:53 · answer #8 · answered by lololerzzzz 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't think most protestant Christians buy into the concept that one human being is/was superior to another.
2006-07-15 14:07:27 · answer #9 · answered by michael941260 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Neither one is superior, both are human beings and therefore not perfect.
2006-07-15 14:06:44 · answer #10 · answered by erik c 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋