2006-07-15 02:46:05 · 5 answers · asked by Pervy_Pirate 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
No, and if you read your Bible it was because of their perverse ways to lead to their downfall.
2006-07-15 02:49:54 · answer #1 · answered by aprayer4u2004 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
hey pervey pirates, i don't think the inhabitants of the cities of the plain were moslems. or jews, or christians, or any modern monotheistic faith. it was way before both but after zarathustra and zoroastrianism.
from the genesis account it appears that the sodomites had more in common with 21st century culture(or the lack thereof) than with the religious cultures that would come out of the hebrews.
i do think zoroastrianism was more wide spread throughout the known world then than people want to admit(abram was obviously influenced by it) at that time but i don't think it's morality was a hit in sodom. like the christian morality isn't a hit in the western world today; and the jewish morality wasn't a hit in judah and israel.
sorry if i got too long winded here.
2006-07-15 22:06:37 · answer #2 · answered by Stuie 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I wouldn't think the people living in Sodom expressed unconditional love to one another when they tried to rape some male visitors. Also unconditional love is not equal to lust after others regardless of their genders.
2006-07-15 09:50:46 · answer #3 · answered by CRT 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
they wanted to rape angels, theres no unconditional love the residents of sodom showed on that night, none at all
plus god did have a condition, 10 righteous men were to be found and the town would have been spared
2006-07-15 09:49:28 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
it was a nuclear exchange between two God or Anunakis, of course you have the story of Lott of the Bible.
2006-07-15 09:51:16 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋