My first language is Japanese.
What is the diffrence of usages between: Nobody understands it except Johon. and: Nobody understands it excet for Johon
Is the second one correct??
2006-07-14 14:16:45 · 9 answers · asked by joejapan8 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
The first one is colloquial: which means that it is in everyday speech
The second one is proper, grammatically. But many many people overlook it.
If you write or say either one, they are understandable. Even in compositions, you will not get marked off!
2006-07-14 14:41:00 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
They are both understood. However it should be like this:
Nobody understands it except for Johon.
2006-07-14 21:19:52 · answer #2 · answered by POOF 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The second one!
2006-07-14 21:24:51 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think the second one sounds correct, I can't explain why. Then again, they both sound correct, but the latter is definitley more proper english.
2006-07-14 21:21:17 · answer #4 · answered by jenny in ohio 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the first one is correct. it is the spelling of except. an advise...read the dictionary daily.even if it is one page,you will learn new word daily.also,when you see it written down is easier to remember. good luck
2006-07-14 22:37:25 · answer #5 · answered by confuse06 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
people drop the "for." it should be there, but its a culture thing. Its like when people say, "i am going over Kates house" instead of " I am going over to Kates house" they drop the small words.
2006-07-14 21:19:51 · answer #6 · answered by ChaChaChingThing 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the second one is grammatically correct.
the first one is incorrect but still understandable in a conversation.
2006-07-20 06:56:06 · answer #7 · answered by dodolah 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They are both correct.
2006-07-15 02:59:04 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
no
2006-07-14 21:20:12 · answer #9 · answered by Its Me 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋