In the beginning of time, how did Adam and Eve communicate with God and the Snake of Eden. Was it in verbal language? If so, that would mean that language came before man, God was the creator of language, and Adam knew of the language starting from creation which implies that language was coded and not learned. It would also mean that there had to have been written language. Then what language was created by God? As I see it, formal language is a complex technology that would require great thinking and brain power. But evidence directly suggests that there was a Stone Age. Primitive stone tools and cave paintings are constantly discovered and show proof of this. If humans were intelligent enough to communicate in a formal, complex language, why were we resorting to such primitive tools? Remember, if you read Genesis 2:19, the language was so complex that Adam was able to formally name every living creature that God brought forth to him.
2006-07-12
11:27:57
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15 answers
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asked by
Doug K
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Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
Brad:
Well what I said about the written language is not the core of the question. That was just an assumption but the main idea is that verbal language taps into a part of your brain that requires huge amounts of brainpower, yet we know how primitive our ancestors were through physical evidence.
2006-07-12
11:57:01 ·
update #1
And please if you are going to say that they communicated through visions or the spirit, please back it up by evidence. Don't just assume and say something to fit your belief. From everything I have read, I have no other reason to believe that they were communicating verbally.
2006-07-12
12:01:42 ·
update #2
SassySassa:
I guess you're implying that the Snake of Eden drew Eve a picture of her and Adam eating the delicious apple right?
2006-07-12
12:52:05 ·
update #3
Sorry this is getting long but its really a burning question for me. But I had to add one more detail. When the Snake of Eden was tempting Eve, he used words like "die" and "evil", but how would Eve understand these abstract words when before she ate the apple death and evil did not exist? Language is formed by what is and continues to evolve, but if evil and death was non-existant, how would it be understood even with thorough explanation?
2006-07-12
13:28:41 ·
update #4
Billy Betters:
Don't even compare American Indian tools and cave painting compared to the Old Stone Age tools. Yes, American Indian tools were still primitive because they were using wood and stones, but it was MUCH more advanced then the tools of the Old Stone Age.
2006-07-12
16:01:37 ·
update #5
1000 years from now our society would seem primitive.
2006-07-12 11:32:28
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answer #1
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answered by johnusmaximus1 6
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Don't belive everything the scientists tell you.
In the guarden they didn't need tools. After the fall they were cast out of the garden. Now where did they have forges and mining equipment? You have to start somewhere.
Look at the American Indians. They had complex languages, stories passed down through the ages. Theories about life and where everything came from. Now where were their complex equipment like you think that Adam and Eve should have had. The Indians had the cave art, and the written language. They had a name for each creature, for the plants and for different places. And yet still used the primitive tools. Why?
Maby God allowed humanity to progress and grow into the technology.
(There is a story that the American Indians told the early settlers to Colorado not to build Denver where they did as the "smoke" allong the mountains would be a problem. We have problems with the smog collecting allong the mountain and flowing from north of Boulder down through Denver and as far south as Colorado Springs. For a bunch of "savages" who couldn't work with metal and create "complex" things they sure seemed to know a lot about what went on around them.)
Response: It dosn't matter how much more advanced that the Indians were over the stone age. They were still advanced and my question was why wern't they as advanced as Europe. The rest of the world was working metal at the time that Christopher Collumbus came to the new world. Why wern't the Indians doing it too? Just because someone has language and writing dosn't mean they understand The Theory of Relativity. Nor do they necissarily understand mining and metalurgy. While centuries before in South America the Inca, the Mayen, and others had a lot of that figgured out.
2006-07-12 11:46:31
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answer #2
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answered by billybetters2 5
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Basically ... there's no answer to this question. The bible has been interpereted, re-interpereted, revised and versionized beyond recognition. If you read texts in Greek or Hebrew, there are HUGE differences in passages and massive losses in translation.
As to whether or not language was coded, you'll never know. You can't be sure as to how humans communicated more than 10,000 years ago ...
ALTHOUGH there seems to have been one universal language created by God. If you know about the bible than you know about the Tower of Babel. Prior to the Tower of Babel, mankind had one universal language (mankind is limited to the middle east, more than likely around Iraq, which has been said to be the location of the Garden of Eden, so it can't be proven that it was worldwide ... everything was limited to the outreach of the countries at that time).
"So the Lord scattered them abroad from there over the face of the earth, and they left off building the city. Therefore its name was called Babel, because there the Lord confused the language of all the earth; and from there the Lord scattered them abroad over the face of the earth. - Genesis 11.
You'll never know exactly what is what when it comes to anything in the bible ... which is why religion is based upon faith.
By the way ... which priest said Adam and Even was a myth? What denomination do you belong to? You said priest ... so Catholic? There's no way a catholic priest would call anything written in the bible a myth ... Mormon maybe? Church of Christ?
ignorance ... One person tells you something and you automatically assume it's the truth ... sad ....
2006-07-12 11:44:11
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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God spoke everything into existance, so God is the creator of language and everything else. Adam was the only human being that was created in the image of God, therefore Adam was a super genenius! There was no need for written language then. After they sinned, their spiritual connection with God was lost. Adam was to have dominion over everything, but after the sin, the enemy took everything from Adam. There was no need for written language for many years, they raised animals, and grew crops. As Adam and Eve's decendents we are created in God's image but their was no one like Adam ever! He was the first everything! Husband, Farmer, Doctor, Grandfather, Inventor, ect....
2006-07-12 11:58:33
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answer #4
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answered by Margarita F 2
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People communicate with verbal language, and they always have. Those who wrote back then chose to write their stories with pictures as a form of expression. Seeing a visual picture brings the story to life far better than seeing the word alone. That's why children's books have pictures with them. That's why Native Americans used picture writing. Plus, Chinese and Japanese writing has symbols instead of actual letters and words. It's called common sense. Don't try to think so hard. You might give yourself a headache.
2006-07-12 12:25:00
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answer #5
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answered by EarthAngel 4
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I'm a Christian.
I don't think the Adam and Eve story is an actual blow by blow description of events leading up to the fall. I think it is a parable. After all, parables are sort of the Lord's favored M.O. when trying to teach a serious lesson.
Yes, I am a Christian who doesn't believe the Adam and Eve story.
You won't tell on me, will you?
2006-07-12 11:35:56
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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Wow--It has been SO LONG since someone posted a Biblical question that was anything more than a poorly-thought-out attempt at unraveling the Christian faith! I really appreciate this, although I must admit I don't have an answer. I found an article on one of my favorite sites: http://www.answersingenesis.org/creation/v2/i4/language.asp
I do admit I haven't read it, but I will be studying and watching this question.
2006-07-12 11:34:57
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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As I understand it, they were no longer allowed to communicate with God (in the same way) after they were cast out of the Garden of Eden.
2006-07-12 11:34:25
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answer #8
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answered by singinintherain55 2
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having verbal language does not imply there was written language
many native americans had verbal languages but no written languages for example
2006-07-12 11:33:24
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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Even better!!!..... Sometimes they say Adam and Eve had two sons, sometimes depending the religion they had three sons. One kills the other one, and commit suicide. That means that the third one if there was one had intercourse with his mother, otherwise the story doesn´t fit!
leymemphis@yahoo.com.mx
2006-07-12 11:40:27
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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if written in times new roman font the word LORD contains the name TODD that was the god that adam saw in the form of the LORD.
2006-07-12 11:35:24
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answer #11
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answered by Anonymous
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