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When God is being qouted, God say us and we.
Genesis 1
26Then God said, "Let us make man in our image, after our likeness.
I next next verse, 27 - when the author speaks of God it refers to him as one.
Genesis 1
27So God created man in his own image,
in the image of God he created him;
male and female he created them. ------------
again in Genesis 3
22Then the LORD God said, "Behold, the man has become like one of us in knowing good and evil.(etc etc)------."
-- I thought there was only one God, why is he saying "us"
---- and when the author speaks of him it is always "he" referring to only one God.

Why is this??

2006-07-12 09:28:28 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

9 answers

In Christianity, there is something known as the Holy Trinity.
The Holy Trinity is one Being, who exist simultaneously and eternally and reciprocally in each other.
1) God the Father, the Source, the Creator
2) God the Son, made flesh in Jesus
3) The Holy Spirit
God is the the Father, God is the Son, God is the Holy Spirit.
The Father is not the Holy Spirit, the Father is not the Son.
The Son is not the Father, the Son is not the Holy Spirit
The Holy Spirit is not the Father, the Holy Spirit is not the Son.
In the Trinity, the Three are said to be co-equal and co-eternal, one in essence, nature, power, action, and will. However, only the Father is unbegotten and non-proceeding. The Son is begotten from or generated-not born-from the Father. The Spirit proceeds from the Father, or from the Father and through the Son
A useful explanation of the relationship of the distinguishable persons of God is called perichoresis, from Greek for "going around". The Trinity "reciprocally contain one another, so that one permanently envelopes and is permanently enveloped by, the other whom he yet envelopes"...
And a quote directly from Wikipedia:
John of Damascus, in the 8th century, used the Greek term περιχώρησις (perichoresis, literally: circuition, rotation) to signify this, in his explanation of the text, "I am in my Father, and my Father is in me."

Hope this helps!

2006-07-12 09:59:41 · answer #1 · answered by Logos24 3 · 1 1

Because this story originated from the ancient Sumerian and Babylonian texts. These ancient cultures had multiple gods. These stories have been dated by science to 4000 BCE. They stories were passed on orally for a few thousand years before being written down again by the biblical authors and the multiple gods were changed to one god. Apparently all of the texts didn't get corrected and so translated out in the original tense of the words.

2006-07-12 16:38:52 · answer #2 · answered by cj 4 · 0 0

Check out John 1:1-2:

1In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2He was with God in the beginning.

Here John is saying that the Word (= Jesus) was with God at the beginning. John is thus saying that at least two thirds of the holy trinity existed always (which is not to say that the Holy Spirit did not exist at this time, either).

2006-07-12 16:34:38 · answer #3 · answered by DR 5 · 0 0

God is one, but He expresses Himself in three personalities, the Trinity (The Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit). In Genesis the Trinity is being introduced. Read St. John chapter 1, the first few verses will help you understand better. The Trinity is like a pretzel, it has three holes that are different, but make up one pretzel. God is three in one. I hope this makes sense.

2006-07-12 16:35:56 · answer #4 · answered by TexasBoy 3 · 0 0

God made man in the image of Himself and the angels. Obviously there are other angels or the thing with the war in Heaven wouldn't make sense. One third of the angels chose to go with Satan, but God did not want to loose a third, so He created this earth age.

2006-07-12 16:34:34 · answer #5 · answered by Mustang L 3 · 0 0

Have you ever thought about who was around to write the story of Genesis before creation had even occurred? Fairytales.

2006-07-12 16:31:59 · answer #6 · answered by Larry 6 · 0 0

Heading- Biblical meaning of "ELOHIM" :
The biblical meaning is in this site
(they give alot of texts including the ones you said and explains it in detail)
http://www.lcg.org/cgi-bin/tw/booklets/tw-bk.cgi?category=Booklets1&item=1104093303

2006-07-12 16:59:55 · answer #7 · answered by KNOWBIBLE 5 · 0 0

Because in all fairy tales there are some flaws in the plot.

2006-07-12 16:31:20 · answer #8 · answered by parshooter 5 · 0 0

The imperical "we."

2006-07-12 16:32:20 · answer #9 · answered by mmenaquale 2 · 0 0

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