In Genesis when god is creating the universe the scripture continually refers to him as God. But when he is creating man or talking to Adam, the scripture changes and always refers to him as Lord God. I understand the entire book was written by the same author. Does this reference have anything to do with why the Gnostic faith beleives that man was created by a demigod and not the true god?
2006-07-12 09:10:12 · 4 answers · asked by cj 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Correction, when I said true god I meant that Gnostics don't believe that the creator god was the true god.
2006-07-12 09:14:18 · update #1
I can't be for certian, but I would think that if the entire scripture is written by the same author that he would not change writting styles halfway through. It would have signifigance as to why he changed the wording.
2006-07-12 09:25:00 · update #2
Gee oldman I wonder why the bible doesn't say that?
2006-07-12 09:27:46 · update #3
If the word "lord" is in all caps...then that is where gods real name(Jehovah) has been removed and replaced with the word "lord" (which is actually a title...not his name) Its the same way throughout the bible. The words "lord" and "god" when they are in all caps..are actually used in place of gods name. When they are lower case...its where those actual titles were used.
2006-07-12 09:22:15 · answer #1 · answered by SKITTLES 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because it was already known before this earth was created that Jesus would be the Lord God of this earth, The earth was created by Jesus under the instruction of God the Father. God the Father Rules over heaven. The Lord God Jesus Christ rules over this earth, one in purpose with God the Father.
2006-07-12 09:23:39 · answer #2 · answered by oldman 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
once you examine solid's Lexicon, you'll locate that LORD is a substitution for the proper call of God. "Jehovah = "the present One" a million) the proper call of the only authentic God a) unpronounced except with the vowel pointings of 0136 previously, the Divine call became no longer used up till the 4th verse of the 2d financial disaster. there is only 4 circumstances contained in the KJV that the substitution isn't made, out of the over 6000 circumstances it truly is used contained in the Hebrew verses. be conscious for the "documentary" suggestion. in reality the concept there have been 2 files is a fiction of scholars, to justify no longer utilising the Divine call, Jehovah. Moses became the author of Genesis, which incorporates the first financial disaster. even as he ought to have had historic files that became exceeded down, it became HIS determination on the words to jot down. The documentary theory seems on the e book being "reduce and pasted" together, and by technique of later writers.
2016-12-01 03:55:53 · answer #3 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hmm, I'm an atheist myself, but here's a thought; Perhaps god was not a lord until he had someone to be lord over? Can't be a lord with nothing to be lord over, right?
2006-07-12 09:14:06 · answer #4 · answered by The Resurrectionist 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋