Definitely. It depends if one or both parents have the genotype, to determine the chances. X=normal x=not normal Y=Normal y=not normal. XX=female XY=male.
Xx= Carrier female. Xy= Carrier male. XX= normal female. xx= abnormal female. XY=Normal male. xy= abnormal male.
X --- Y
X
x
= Carrier mother; normal father= 50% chance of normality. 50% chance of carrier. You would have XX, XY, Xx, and xY.
X --- y
X
x
= Carrier mother; carrier father= 25% chance of normality. 50% chance of carrier. 25% chance of disease. You would have XX, Xy, Xx, and xy.
X --- Y
X
X
= Normal mother; normal father= 0% chance of disease. 100% chance of normality.You would have XX, XY, XX, and XY.
x --- y
x
x
= Infected mother; infected father= 0% chance of normality. 100% chance of disease. You would have xx, xy, xx, and xy.
x --- y
X
x
=Mother Carrier; Infected Father= 50% chance of carrier. 50% chance of disease. You would have Xx, Xy, xx, and xy.
I think I covered a good majority of the bases.
It all depends if the parent's partner has the disease, doesn't have the disease, or is a carrier of the disease.
So in the case that you asked... if one parent is a carrier then...
Carrier + Normal = 50% chance of normality. 50% chance of carrier.
Carrier + Carrier =25% chance of normality. 50% chance of carrier. 25% chance of disease.
Carrier + Infected =50% chance of carrier. 50% chance of disease.
Ya... I miss being in school. I apologize.
2006-07-13 13:08:39
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answer #1
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answered by Johnna P 2
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depends on what illness are you talking about
there are like diabetics genes that can appear in the second ,generation =not the child but the grandchild
there are possibilities to be just carriers without having the manifestation of the illness but passing it on to the next generation
there are some genetic disease that stops there if the child have non of those sick genes
there are sick genes appears only in some nations like Mediterranean people ,or just Jews ,or just in men ,or just in women
if there is some genetic mutations or illnesses usually there is a possibility to pass to next generations
2006-07-12 07:45:37
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answer #2
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answered by qwq 5
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No, if you're asking whether the baby, who does not have the gene, can pass it to their children then the answer is no.
If the parent possess a gene for a certain disease, even if the gene is recessive (do not exhibit the trait for the gene) or dominant (exhibits the trait for the gene), but do not pass the gene to their baby then the baby can not pass the gene to his/her children.
2006-07-12 05:10:04
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answer #3
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answered by scslmd 2
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well it depends if they dont have the gene at all then yer its gone 4 good but if they carry it but dont have it themselves and meet some1 else who carries the same gene then yes there could be a chance. its like a box table, id draw it on comp if i could. if the baby has been tested and the docs say that there is no trace of the gene and they do not carry it then there fine. hope this helps
2006-07-12 04:13:20
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answer #4
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answered by rebecca g 3
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Some people can be carriers. There are certain illnesses where the males get the illness and the female is the carrier or the other way round. You would need to check with the doctor.
2006-07-12 04:11:13
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answer #5
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answered by MissBehave 5
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Depends if the genetic test was 100% accurate.
Mutations can still occur, the baby could spontaneously have a mutation, or this could happen in the next generation.
It's all about the statistics. See a genetic counseller.
2006-07-13 10:47:43
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answer #6
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answered by AnythingbutWork 1
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I think the baby could still be a carrier. If they then had a baby with another carrier of the gene, then the child (ie your grandchild) could have the disease
2006-07-12 04:08:18
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answer #7
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answered by OriginalBubble 6
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a faulty gene could be carried through and passed on to another
2006-07-14 11:17:08
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answer #8
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answered by theblackwitch 5
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