Read the Quran instead it is still in its original language (but you can get a translation) it was told directly to Muhammad from God and was not collected over thousands of years
2006-07-10 16:48:28
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answer #1
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answered by Layla 6
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How is it, that 5o to 100 years after Jesus, the bible was finished and we are talking about a KJV Bible 1611 after Christ that had to be as 303 years to 1914 after Christ an excepted translation. The world was screaming for the bible. King James only allowed those who did it to do it.
He and they did not want a world war over it, so all religions that existed find their place in it as if it is a religious formula.
EXAMPLE:
Acts 2:31; He seeing this before, spake of the resurrection of Christ that his soul was not left in hell [ sepulchre ]; John 19:38-42[ Sepulchre of Jesus or cave, tomb or grave];
Mark 9:42-48; This is only in Jerusalem and on the map is the valley of the son of Hinnom. In 2Cor.28:1-4; Ahab's day. Jeremiah 7: 30-32; in Jeremiah's day and Josiah made it the city dump of Jerusalem, thus it had been a place of death and burial or burial by fire. The so called hell fire.
Jude 6; 2Pet.2:4; The hell the angel are in, Luke 20:34-36; Angels do not die.
Thus this is from the word tartarus and as you can see, the angels are fine, they are just confined until judgement day.
The King James Version bible is a good translation and the book that had to be the one prophecied that would be available from 2300 to 2520 after Daniel and 2520 after Daniel is 1914 after Christ. No other book will have another 303 years to be an excepted translation as Satan is given 6,130 after Eden and 1914 was 5980 years after Eden, so we are in the last days of Satan's world until he faces Christ Rev.20:1-6;
and by the time 7,130 years after Eden comes, all will be back as perfect as it was then.
2006-07-11 01:35:29
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answer #2
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answered by jeni 7
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King James was the king of England from 1603-1625. At some point he comissioned a new translation of the Bible. The language in it is very Shakespearean and some people think it's the best. Most people use the revised standard now.
2006-07-10 23:56:23
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answer #3
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answered by Purdey EP 7
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Actually, a large percentage of churches now use the NIV or "New International Version" Bible. It's quite interesting to compare two. One small change to a word or phrase can really change the interpretation.
2006-07-10 23:50:57
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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It is ironic that King James was actually a practicing homosexual, yet millions of fundamentalist swear by the translation he commissioned.
2006-07-10 23:48:55
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answer #5
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answered by 自由思想家 3
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Some King in England I like the NIV better.
2006-07-10 23:46:31
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answer #6
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answered by Virginia V 3
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WHY THE KING JAMES BIBLE?
Since the first words given by inspirations from God that were written down are no longer with us and all we have are copies, can we say all we have is God’s message?
Standard Version, 1901. We are told that these modern translations were done to update for easier reading and the changes are minor. Satan can’t destroy God’s word so he uses men to teach his method of (1) subtract a word or words (2) change a word or words (3) add a word or words (4) remove words from context. (Genesis 3:1-6) Who changed scripture? Who is responsible for this confusion? Satan is the author of confusion.
Gal 5:9 A little leaven leaveneth the whole lump.
There is one absolute standard by which all bibles are compared, the King James Bible. So it is one against all the rest. So which one is right? Compare the following verses to the same verses in other translations.
Does the modern translation leave out firstborn son? If so, Mary was not a virgin.
Matthew 1:25 And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS
Does the modern translation change “Joseph” to “father”? If so, Joseph could have been the father of Jesus.
Luke 2:33 And Joseph and his mother marvelled at those things which were spoken of him.
Does the modern translation change “blood” to “death”? If so, Jesus could have died without shedding His blood and we would not have redemption through his blood.
Col 1:14 In whom we have redemption through his blood, even the forgiveness of sins:
Does the modern translation change “God” to “he”? If so, Jesus would not be God.
I Tim 3:16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.
Does the modern translation leave out “without a cause” in Matt 5:22? If so, Jesus was a sinner.
Matt 5:22 But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment.
Mark 3:5 And when he had looked round about on them with anger,
Does the modern translation change “of” to “in” in Rom 3:22? If so, then the righteousness of God is by your faith and not by the faith of the Lord Jesus Christ.
Rom 3:22 Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:
Gal 2:16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ.
Does the modern translation change “rightly dividing” to “rightly handling” in II Tim 2:15? If so, then there is no division in the word of truth, it is all to us.
II Tim 2:15 Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.
Does the modern translation leave out “O Lucifer” and add “o morning star” in Isaiah 14:12? If so, then Jesus and Lucifer are the same.
Isaiah 14:12 How art thou fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, son of the morning! how art thou cut down to the ground, which didst weaken the nations.
Rev 22:16 I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David, and the bright and morning star.
Who does the modern translation say who killed Goliath? Is it David or Elhanan, or both?
I Sam 17:51 Therefore David ran, and stood upon the Philistine, and took his sword, and drew it out of the sheath thereof, and slew him, and cut off his head therewith. And when the Philistines saw their champion was dead, they fled.
II Sam 21:19 And there was again a battle in Gob with the Philistines, where Elhanan the son of Jaare-oregim, a Bethlehemite, slew the brother of Goliath the Gittite, the staff of whose spear was like a weaver's beam.
2006-07-10 23:54:16
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answer #7
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answered by Ray W 6
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Jesus is still Jesus. No matter whose version you read.
2006-07-10 23:45:22
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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Listen to brahden She is wise.
2006-07-10 23:46:49
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answer #9
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answered by ? 3
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