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If xx = women and you need a y chromosome to make a male, and God created Jesus through asexual conception. If a women reproduces without the help of a man wouldn't she have a girl?(xx)=(xx). So was she really a virgin? Or did God break his own law of reproduction! Please logical answers only......

2006-07-10 15:44:49 · 30 answers · asked by Nuray 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Faith is not an option. God does not create laws to break them he is not arrogant. He created the laws of science and mathematics. If God is all willing (which I beleive he is) then why do you need to have Jesus born through a women, why not just have him ascend to earth. Where does it say that Mary was sin free? Who does the Bible say visited Mary to let her know she is impregnated by God? Don't be scared of these laws, he only works in mysterious ways to those who don't want to know and keep it a mystery to themselves!

2006-07-10 16:38:06 · update #1

30 answers

Logically, it was not an asexual conception!!! God is the FATHER of Jesus!!! Fathers are male!!!

You have a logically flawed premise.

Think of Adam and Eve. How did God clone a woman out of purely male chromosomes?

2006-07-10 15:57:24 · answer #1 · answered by BC 6 · 0 0

John 4:24; God is a spirit.

Adam and Eve were created souls, Num.16:22; God's spirit is life in souls.
James 2:26; Eccl.12:7; All after them are born souls to die.
To resurrect a whole world [ 6000 years ]. from dust. Psm.104:29,30; Eze.37:12-14;
in his Rev.20:1-6,12,13; 1000 years reign as John 3:16; promises.
Jesus showed how. Luke 8:50,52,54,55{her spirit made her a living soul]; As a baby.
Eccl.11:5 As thou knowest not what is the way of the spirit, nor how the bones do grow in the womb of her that is with child: even so thou knowest not the works of God who maketh all.
Matt.8:16; Demon spirits can enter into a person.
John 17:3,5,24; Jesus was a spirit creature that was with God before te world was, Col.1:15; The first creature God created, and the only one that could step forth to save the seed of Adam, by allowing them to have a temporary life [ rather than destroy them and start over]; 1Cor.15:22; As in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. Jesus is the only one to qualify.

So it was easy for God to cause the spirit of his first created creature to enter the womb of Mary and come forth the same as we are Heb.2:9,14,16; To destroy Satan and death and SAVE the human race into a new heavens and a new earth.

2006-07-11 02:02:45 · answer #2 · answered by jeni 7 · 0 0

You are right X does need a Y to reproduce to make a child, but XX does most likely = woman there is a 1/4 of a chance that you may get a male; but God is not human. God does not apply to the XY chromosome equation, nor time, or pysical apearance. God is a super natural being. His laws do not apply to our.

2006-07-10 23:18:14 · answer #3 · answered by Dragonpack 3 · 0 0

Without trying to offend anyone, I would like to point out that you're trying to fit something that is imagined (Christian mythology) with something that is real (women can only have boys by being impregnated via sperm that contain the Y chromosome). It is not the point of the story to be realistic, it is simply to inspire and, some would argue, to give a fantastical background to an otherwise sinful story (a savior can't be born out of wedlock!). Besides all that, wouldn't the whole Jesus thing be a bit less enticing if he was just a regular guy?

If you continue down this path (critically examining the stories in the Bible based on logic and reason) you will most likely be taken aback by quite a lot of its nonsense. The whole immaculate conception thing is just icing on the cake.

Many religious folks argue that the Bible can't be taken literally because it has been re-translated hundreds of times and corrupted by the people who translated it. Others would say that it is the infallible "word of God" and must be taken literally (be scared of these people, very scared). Then there's people like me who would say it is just another unnecessary delusion of man in long line of popular myths (who's to say we won't be worshiping Santa Clause in 1000 years? We're already half way there!).

If you want to learn more odds and ends of the Bible, you should check out the Bible Quiz: http://ffrf.org/quiz/bquiz.php

I'll give you a free answer to one of the questions: The tenth commandment (as listed in Exodus 34:26) is "Thou shalt not seethe (boil) a kid (baby goat) in his mother’s milk."

-Riskable
http://riskable.com
"I have a license to kill -9"

2006-07-10 23:09:12 · answer #4 · answered by riskable 1 · 0 0

Jesus is the Son of God and took a human form through a human being, a virgin, Mary. She is a virgin and Jesus was concieved through the Holy spirit. This is called Immaculate conception.God is His father.

Like somebody also mentioned in the other answers, All things are possible by God.

2006-07-10 22:56:16 · answer #5 · answered by Sunshine 1 · 0 0

You've to put your 'logic' on one side when talking about Faith. God is Great, the Creator. If He can create through mating of male and female He has the power to create without their being in touch. If Adam could be believed to have given birth to Eve singly, why couldn't Mary be chosen by Him to give birth to Jesus?

2006-07-10 22:54:05 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Theoretically, Mary could have been an XXY female, and the egg could have had a Y chromosome. Or God, being omnipotent, could make his own chromosomes to be the way he wanted.

2006-07-10 22:48:30 · answer #7 · answered by DakkonA 3 · 0 0

It happens in sharks all the time. It can be a defect where you actually have three or even four chromosomes to give. Take Biology. It's possible she had a Y chromosome, or some miracle of invitro.

2006-07-10 22:48:55 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

the doctrine of immaculate conception is an attempt to justify the Divinity of Jesus, but referred to Mary as the immaculate (pure) conception, not that of the birth of Jesus. Physical laws of nature would prvent Jesus birth without sexual contact with a male's seed, howevever Mary was born without having sinned, jesus was born as a result of the abscence of sin in Mary, not himself. I think this explains the doctrine of immaculate conception in the catholic church. Aprist in your local catholic church could explain it better, as it is part of the instruction toward the catechism, I think.

2006-07-10 22:56:14 · answer #9 · answered by de bossy one 6 · 0 0

Good answer sassy,i agree with you.I believe Mary was a virgin.I'm curious as to how anybody knows what the sex of a baby would be without a man's help?

2006-07-10 22:51:40 · answer #10 · answered by believer26 3 · 0 0

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