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Do you believe there is actually such a thing as a victimless crime? If so, describe in detail what your definition of a victimless crime is.

2006-07-10 11:22:42 · 16 answers · asked by digitechguy 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Also, what is your opinion on victimless crime.
Would you say, from one point, we live by moral conduct and by rules which govern us and protect us from danger/eachother and thus victimless crime is a horrible thing because it destroys this, "moral protection", so too speak. Since by violating such a crime, you become vulnerable to not caring about your being, since you are abusing yourself and if thats true, than you dont care about other peoples being, and will abuse them.
Or would you say, from another point, that thats not the case because a person can hate himslef and still be respectful to others?

2006-07-10 11:38:15 · update #1

16 answers

Yes. If I speed, it is a crime. If there are no other automobiles around, and no accidents occur because of this crime, there are no victims.

If a man speaks in the forest and there's no woman there to hear, is he still wrong?

2006-07-10 11:31:19 · answer #1 · answered by LindaLou 7 · 1 0

There is no such thing as a victimless crime. Every time someone commits a crime and is arrested we all pay for it with our tax dollars.
I disagree with those that think recreational drug use is a victimless crime. The mules that bring the drugs are often victims. Children that are used by dealers to peddle their wares are victims.

People that don't wear seat-belts and are injured or killed cause our insurance rates to increase.

As a society we pay for the crimes of others.

2006-07-10 18:46:28 · answer #2 · answered by Forget-n-forgive forget it!! 2 · 0 0

There are alot of victimless crimes in traffic situations like j-walking, speeding, running red lights when there is absolutly noone around is victimless. Most forms of drug dealing are victims to a point. If someone buys some pot from a drug dealer in an alley, goes home, smokes it and thats it. However the drug lord in where ever making the pot and distributing it isn't commiting a victimless crime.

2006-07-17 04:45:13 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

A victimless crime would be a set of circumstances that under the written laws of a given society would be actionable as "illegal" but, in examining the situation, one would say no one has been hurt.

For example, if I enjoy sex and have sex with someone and they give me a hundred dollars, they have not been hurt and I have not been hurt. We both did what we wanted to do. However, in most places this would be a criminal act and I would be arrested.

Another example of a victimless crime is when someone who has some pot sells it to someone who wants it. No one is hurt, so there is no "victim" ... in other words, both parties were aware of the positives and negatives of the transaction and participated willingly.

If both parties are willing participants, it is a victimless crime.

2006-07-10 18:30:11 · answer #4 · answered by certifiedtarotmaster 4 · 0 0

A crime by definition is an act in violation of the law that makes the offender liable to punishment under that law.

A victim is someone who is acted on adversely by a force or agent.

If a crime is punished than there is always at least one victim. The criminal.

This in turn would create more victims.
The criminal's family. The criminal's associates. Etc.

If it is a crime. There are victims. Whether they are victims of the act itself or the punishment given is irrelevant. A crime creates adversity.

2006-07-10 18:40:03 · answer #5 · answered by theogodwyn 3 · 0 0

A victimless crime is an action which harms none, but which is arbitrarily defined by the code of law as a crime.

2006-07-10 18:30:57 · answer #6 · answered by Skeptimystic 3 · 0 0

The crime is what is happening in Iraq whom many chidren are without parents now .The crime is when the Jews people are still killing many muslims dailly in Palestine and occupied Palestine by force and killing infants ,children,women----etc with no pity.The crime is Christian people is just watching although they love peace and they speak always about piece !!!!The crime is to watch the blood from the childrens coming down like a river of blood by shooting them on their heads from the Israelian and the USA forces .

2006-07-10 18:33:34 · answer #7 · answered by fatush1234 2 · 0 0

That depends, can you count yourself as a victim, if you're choosing to (potentially) put yourself in harm's way? Not wearing your own seat belt, for example. Sure, it's a crime, but you're the one choosing not to wear it, and you're the only one who could be harmed by it. Is that victimless, or are you your own victim? Opinions differ.

2006-07-10 18:32:12 · answer #8 · answered by The Resurrectionist 6 · 0 0

Yes. Anything that does not harm another person or infringe upon their rights. Doing drugs in the safety of your home is definitely one.

2006-07-10 18:28:31 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Ya...people who are convicted for recreational drug use...especially lessor drugs like weed. They aren't hurting anyone, weed may just be safer than cigs considering that most weed smokers don't smoke multiple times a day.

2006-07-10 18:28:09 · answer #10 · answered by laetusatheos 6 · 0 0

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