2006-07-10 10:00:00 · 10 answers · asked by Catherine la Sardine 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
Because it is from Hebrew Aharon, but when the Old Testament was translated into Greek, there is no "h", so it became Aaron.
BTW, there is a double "a" in aardvark, because there are double "a"'s in Dutch, from which we get "aardvark".
2006-07-10 10:46:48 · answer #1 · answered by Taivo 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
The name "Aaron" is the English pronunciation of the Latin transliteration of the Greek transliteration of the Hebrew name "Aharon". Greek didn't have an "h" sound in it, so the "h" was lost at that stage.
Names like "Canaan" and "Baal" are different. They were borrowed into English the same way as above, but the original Hebrew had a consonant between the two "a"s that is not used in Greek, Latin, nor English today, nor for that matter, in Modern Hebrew.
Isaac is a different case. It is derived from Hebrew "Yitzchak" (where the "ch" is like a German "ch"/Russian "kh" sound in Modern Hebrew). There is no double "a" nor two syllables in the original.
The word "aardvark" (if you care...) is from Dutch and/or Afrikaans; it is not clear exactly which. The best I can guess is that it's the Dutch version of an Afrikaans name for the species. In Dutch the double "a" represents a single syllable that is held out longer than a standard "ah" sound.
2006-07-11 07:12:26 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Aaron, Isaac, Canaan, Baal - all these biblical words are either all from a different language where the double a is normal, or that is the way the vowels transliterate into English. Different languages have different phonetic values for the vowels. Michael is Miguel and Mikhail... there is just a different way of doing the vowels in every language.
2006-07-10 21:58:38 · answer #3 · answered by Jeannie 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because they are hard of hearing. So when they say his name it sound a little like this? "A" Aron! at the same time when his name is called
2006-07-10 17:06:04 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't know, but if the rule is 'i' before 'e' except after 'c', and Einstein was so bright, how come he got it wrong twice in 8 letters?
2006-07-10 17:05:04 · answer #5 · answered by limey_not_lime 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why is there a double "a" in aardvark? Noone knows.
2006-07-10 17:07:32 · answer #6 · answered by rlms_girl 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
b/c it's cool. i mean why does llyod have the two L's? it's just a cool, screwy world we live in.
2006-07-10 19:11:47 · answer #7 · answered by sherbert 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I heard it was because Moses stuttered.
2006-07-10 17:55:44 · answer #8 · answered by Goddess of Grammar 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
so it will pronounce different than Aron, maybe just guess
2006-07-10 17:18:53 · answer #9 · answered by Obi 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
usually
2006-07-10 17:03:34 · answer #10 · answered by ~Whatshername~ 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋