Do we not considered a woman or child to be raped when some one or something has sex with them without their knowledge or consent? Were God to be tried in a court of law would he/she not be declared and convicted as a pervert and would his/her name not be on the child molestors list .
2006-07-09 12:23:41 · 43 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Mary was not a Virgin, the translation from Greek to Latin botched it all up. The Greek statement was "Woman of Virtue", the only thing they had in Latin that was close was virgin.
2006-07-09 12:32:21 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Um...as weird as that sounds, I've considered it, and found you to misguided. Molestation/rape means actually having intercourse. God never had intercourse with Mary, and thus it would not be rape or Molestation. And besides, Mary isn't/wasn't a child. She was a grown woman. I think he'd be on the Sex Offender's list if found guilty (which I doubt would happen, Defence has a strong case) but not a Pervert or Child Molestor.
So...He didn't RAPE her, but simply used her as a vessle to bring Jesus into the world...tho...it must've been REALLY weird for Mary...
2006-07-09 12:27:42 · answer #2 · answered by RandonPerson1 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Read Luke Chapter 1 verses 26 -39
2006-07-09 12:36:40 · answer #3 · answered by jaimestar64cross 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
God did not rape Mary, the Holy Spirit of God was cast upon Mary so she could concieve through a Virgin Birth.
2006-07-09 12:29:32 · answer #4 · answered by MrCool1978 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
maybe the way Mary was dressing advertised to god that she really wanted it. Blame the victim, not the perv.... god doesn't understand the meaning of "no"
for those who say that Mary wasn't a child, but a woman.....she was 14 for Christ's sake, that constitutes a child in my state. Imagine, she was impregnated by god and gave birth to god.....all most as cool a concept as the three gods that are really one god doctrine
2006-07-09 12:28:13 · answer #5 · answered by 自由思想家 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
God didn't have any sexual act with Mary. He created Jesus in Mary's womb just by His mere will. That is Mary got pregnant
without any sexual intercourse. God can make pregnant a man if He want to. He is all powerful. He didn't need any man and woman to
creat Adam or Eve.
2006-07-09 12:32:56 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Luke 1:38 And Mary said , Behold the handmaid of the Lord; be it unto me according to thy word. And the angel departed from her.
Informed. AND consent
2006-07-09 12:30:15 · answer #7 · answered by gradyinchrist 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
First God didn't have sex with mary it was a mirical birth. In the Bible it is one of the prophecies that Jesus would be born of a virgin. Isaiah 7:14
2006-07-09 12:30:20 · answer #8 · answered by Tabby 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
God did not rape Mary, and ur thinking about now....back then u couldnt sue ppl for tht.. u just had to live with it..lawsuits didnt exsist back then...
and u shouldnt think such.. "wrong" things..
you shouldnt think tht how God impregnated Mary is in any way perverted or sick and twisted!!!!!!! X-o
2006-07-09 12:29:51 · answer #9 · answered by paige_squirrel_goddess 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Mary consented to be impregnated. She was therefore not raped. Check this Bible verse:
Luke 1:38
2006-07-09 12:34:38 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, that is completely ludicrous. There was NO sex involved.
Try to wrap your small mind around the concept that there was no physical impregnation. It was spiritual, non-physical.
God is SO much greater than our limited human awareness can comprehend, but obviously, some humans' awareness is much more limited than others.
2006-07-09 12:30:59 · answer #11 · answered by LindaLou 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋