The doctrine of the immaculate conception is basically this:
God, through a singular miraculous act created mary, through normal conception, without sin.
The reason was to ensure that Christ was without sin.
Why could God not have through a singular miracle, have made Christ without sin?
The bible states that sin passes from the FATHER to child, not from the mother. It is wholly unnecessary to think that Mary needed to be without sin, as her state did not affect Jesus's state of sinlessness.
This doctrine is not, in any way shope or form biblical, so why did it grow and eventually was adopted?
2006-07-09
12:01:48
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7 answers
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asked by
athorgarak
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Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
For those who CAN"T understand or chose to NOT read everything I wrote, I am asking Catholics to back up their doctrinal claims!
If THIS follow up does NOT apply to you, IGNORE IT!
thanks
2006-07-09
18:03:13 ·
update #1