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Did Jesus teach that sexuality was good or bad? If God is andrognynous, why did He give man and woman sexuality?

2006-07-08 04:18:22 · 6 answers · asked by mouthbreather77 1 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

The book of Genesis says he created human beings male and female in His image.

2006-07-08 04:28:16 · update #1

6 answers

Jesus did not teach about celibacy. The only real mention of this was when the apostle Paul said that it would be easier to remain single than married (as far as being able to minister) which is found in 1 Corinthians 7:8 ,but that's about it.

There is however different guidelines in the Bible about avoiding fornication and adultery.

2006-07-08 04:27:25 · answer #1 · answered by A M 3 · 0 0

I cannot recall anywhere in the scriptures where God directly addresses celibacy other than of course when dealing with certain cases where for example a lady is found in adultery and brought before Him by the pharisees to be stoned as was the culture at the time. He not only has mercy on her but begins to write in the ground things about her accusers and one by one the simply leave embarrassed by the things He is writting in the ground. Finally he looks up and says women where are you accusers she looks up from her self-pity and guilt and for the first time realizes that they are now practically alone. Then he says neither do I condemn you go and sin no more. Paul however does address celibacy directly. Check out Romans I think it is where he speaks about the pros and cons of living single as a celibate. Sexuality in itself I feel can be safely labeled good as God created the animals and Adam and Eve specifically as "male and female". I think he gave us sexuality to be a blessing within marriage after all he told Adam and Eve directly after making Eve to be fruitful and multiply (Genesis). I hope my answer helps in some way I am merely searching for the truth in the scriptures where I believe the truth may be found good luck to you in your search.

2006-07-08 11:33:00 · answer #2 · answered by travallion 2 · 0 0

Did Jesus teach on celibacy?

2006-07-08 11:22:15 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Jesus did not teach that celibacy was bad. And if man was created in God's image and God is androgynous, we'd all be androgynous. "Ye do err in not knowing the scriptures."

2006-07-08 11:25:04 · answer #4 · answered by Spud55 5 · 0 0

Jesus did not but Paul did. Excerpted from The Theology of Paul the Apostle http://www.beliefnet.com/story/143/story_14301_1.html

Peter Brown observes that 1 Corinthians 7 is "the one chapter that determine all Christian thought on marriage and celibacy for well ov millennium." It is unfortunate, then, that so much of the discussion of the passage, present as well as past, has been dominated by the assumption that Paul's own sexual ethic was basically ascetic in character and that he promoted the idea of marriage and sexual relationships as a second best.

This dominant view obviously builds on two undeniable features of the passage. One is Paul's own clearly stated preference for the unmarried state: "I wish that all were as I am" (7.6); "those who marry will have affliction in regard to the flesh, and I would spare you that" (7.28); "he who marries his virgin does well, and he who does not marry her does better" (7.38); "in my opinion she [a widow] is happier if she remains as she is [and does not marry again]" (7.40). The other is Paul's sense that the present age will not be long drawn out: "the time is short" (7.29);95 "the form of this world is passing away" (7.31).96 In the interim, "those who have wives should be as though they had none" (7.29). It is also clear from the thrust of 7.25-35 that the two concerns hang together. A large part of the reason for Paul's preference for the unmarried state is his conviction that the time is so short.
The whole of that section stands under the opening statement, "I think that on account of the present distress (ananke) it is well for a person to continue as he is" (7.26).

However, at the same time, too little weight has been given to two other factors. One is that Paul was evidently responding to a series of questions posed by the Corinthians themselves - as indicated by the letter's first use of peri de ("now, concerning. . .") in 7.1 and its repetition in 7.25. This probably indicates that the Corinthians' letter put a series of questions to Paul, first with regard to the married (7.1-24) and second with regard to the virgins9s and unmarried (7.25-38) The importance of this point is that it compels us to recognize that the scope of Paul's discussion was determined by the issues put to him 99 In other words, h; did not set out to provide a theology of marriage. No doubt this was anoth~ element of scriptural teaching which he simply took for granted (cf. 1 Cor. 6.16)'` That presumably is why he makes no reference to what was generally regar as the primary purpose of marriage - to procreate - although his allusion to children in v. 14 presumably indicates that he also took that as understood.

2006-07-08 11:34:12 · answer #5 · answered by The Professional 4 · 0 0

In the beginning God said it is not good that man should be alone. God did not set up man to have sexy before marriage, he meant for man to find a wife, and then the relationship is to begin.

2006-07-08 11:23:00 · answer #6 · answered by iwant_u2_wantme2000 6 · 0 0

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