Does an argument like "i discriminated homosexuals, because the bible tells me to do that" work in a court of law?
2006-07-07 18:40:26 · 19 answers · asked by Thinx 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
It depends entirely on the situation.
The bible cannot be used as a defense to justify violating other laws.
If you are a private organization, not open to the general public and do not receive tax dollars, you can discriminate based on nothing more than because you want to.
However, you are not using the bible, per se, since you do not have to justify your discrimination.
Courts make the final determination on what constitutes unlawful discrimination.
For those who claim the bible is a legal document, that is incorrect. The words in the bible have no influence with or authority over a court.
2006-07-07 19:20:20 · answer #1 · answered by Left the building 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Anything that sets "precedent" can be used as a legal argument.
Law is about arguing successfully.
As an example, the Bible in some passages says that in every 7th year a person shall be forgiven their debts.
This the basis for American Bankruptcy.
If YOU can make a JUDGE fear the wrath of GOD, then you win!
This does not make the legal system perfect. It makes it human.
The idea behind the LAW is to pick the right judge and pick the right argument.
Get enough judges together who fear God and the 10 commandments you and abolish the death penalty.
Get enough judges together who FEAR God, but Respect the Constitution and the division of Church and State and you keep Christian (Or Muslim or Jewish) Prayers out of public school.
Imagine YOUR children being taught MUSLIM or MORMON or CATHOLIC or JEWISH or BUDDIST prayers at school!
I'm a Christian and I approve of that, because there are other beliefs and while I think mine is better, I don't fault your your belief anymore than you fault me my beliefs! Some things need to be kept neutral. Children need to grow up and find thier own way and if they favor ME not YOU, that is their choice.
That is THEIR choice. Free will. Without bias.
God wants only the willing! Not the blindly indoctrinated!
2006-07-07 18:58:07 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Be careful how you word your question. The Bible leaves many interpretations of the same argument. Let's say homosexuality... You say you had the right to discriminate against them.. but you are looking at one aspect of the bible.. because it is a sin. The bible also says .. not to judge and to love one another as yourselves.. only God has the right to judge. God is warning those who "sin" and practice homosexuality that it is wrong. People may take it out of context.. and act like God by punishing them.. The bible is a book about conduct among historical, theological and literatural point of views. This is where we base our code of conduct and behaviors. Then what about people of other religions?... Most religions have their deity(ies).. and but then, I speak with the influence of my religion... If I spoke for the whole world.. I would find those who would disagree with me.. The world is an amazing place... God is all knowing.. and me, I am just an insignificant human being... even sometimes.. even I want answers. But my faith is sufficient for now.
2006-07-07 18:49:28 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Unfortunately no, there is this supposedly wonderful partition in our laws that states that there is a separation of church of state, so no, the Bible cannot be used, but if you can show that you have a strong religious belief, this may work as a mitigating circumstance in you case and get you reduced time or probation.
2006-07-07 18:44:29 · answer #4 · answered by aj1908 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I am afraid it could work, but I don't think it should. Freedom of religion is not above the obeyance of law. If you belonged to a church that allowed you to shoot people, then your religion should be outlawed. You can only be a member of a church that respects the law.
Now, you will say that churches often don't respect the laws. And that all churches should be banned. Well, that's what you said, man. I didn't... :-)
2006-07-07 18:45:16 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, if the laws of man rule man, and they say you can’t discriminate, then they win. At least until all of Congress is Republican & makes an amendment that only straight people have the right to do things… like say get married.
2006-07-07 18:49:31 · answer #6 · answered by s_an_dubois 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is very true that the Bible can be used as a legal document since its influence on Western morality is unquestionable.
2006-07-07 18:59:00 · answer #7 · answered by elguapo_marco_2008@sbcglobal.net 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is where the doctrine of separation of church and state comes into play. Freedom of Religion has to do with being able to worship where and how you choose, not the freedom to push people around.
2006-07-07 18:47:53 · answer #8 · answered by Dutch58 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends on what country you're in and on what you mean by discriminate.
You are free (assuming you are talking about the United States) to discriminate on the basis of lots of things in certain ways. You don't have to date blondes if you don't want to. You don't have to give gifts to Quakers. But you can't decide to deny education to someone because they are Catholic. And you can't beat someone up because they have red hair.
2006-07-07 18:45:31 · answer #9 · answered by olelefthander 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Freedom of religion ends when it interferes with another person's rights. A person can't go out and castrate men because they believe in anti-menism.
2006-07-07 18:43:31 · answer #10 · answered by holidayspice 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋