Just curious, as someone new to glasses - is this normal?
2006-07-07 17:23:20 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Health ➔ Other - Health
My dear, it's simple. It is a natural phenomena that humans have on eye for sighting things at greater distance and one eye for sighting things closely. The same idea is adopted while making lenses of glasses for human eyes. I hope it will be quiet clear for your understanding and curiosity
2006-07-07 18:32:24 · answer #1 · answered by noman_rao1981 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
It depends on the amount of "farsightedness" (hyperopia) and "nearsightedness" (myopia). A small amount in each eye would not be that abnormal. But to be drastically different in each eye is not that common. It happens but it is not the most common way to find the two eyes. Although the two eyes are separate, just like, say your hands, they tend to be very similar.
2006-07-09 07:54:19 · answer #2 · answered by eyegirl 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is not at all abnormal. Without glasses, the world will be closer to 2D and you will lack the ability to judge distances correctly. The glasses you have will help you have depth perception.
2006-07-07 17:27:01 · answer #3 · answered by Buzz s 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1
2016-06-19 00:21:48 · answer #4 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i think its possible i for example hav one eye with estigmatism n the other doesnt do one is kinda cross eyed and has a worse sight than the other..
2006-07-07 17:28:58 · answer #5 · answered by ♥ Raptors Fan 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
not unusual, each eye is an independant unit
2006-07-07 17:56:44 · answer #6 · answered by ? 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
NOPE! BECAUSE MY EYES ARE THAT WAY TO. AND I DONT EVEN WEAR MY GLASSES!
2006-07-07 17:38:27 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋