Exodus 21:7-11
When a man sells his daughter as a slave, she will not be freed at the end of six years as the men are. If she does not please the man who bought her, he may allow her to be bought back again. But he is not allowed to sell her to foreigners, since he is the one who broke the contract with her. And if the slave girl's owner arranges for her to marry his son, he may no longer treat her as a slave girl, but he must treat her as his daughter. If he himself marries her and then takes another wife, he may not reduce her food or clothing or fail to sleep with her as his wife. If he fails in any of these three ways, she may leave as a free woman without making any payment.
2006-07-07 08:15:43 · 19 answers · asked by Biomimetik 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
It's funny how correlationrevelation wrote the king james version up there when he/she/it should know that the translations have been changed to take slave out of the Bible since people find the word offensive.
2006-07-07 08:21:13 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
You are describing what is called indentured servertude..employment and it has nothing to do with sex. Hebrew and Jewish culture are very clear on that but you have not done your research. If a daughter is not married into another family then she could be bartered into a household as a servent for another family...all these families are in the same community. You also must understand that this was not Gods intention but His established boundries according to man's institutioning of rankings in society. It was an honor for these women to go into homes and a dishoner not to be chosen..either for marriage or for servertude. A free woman as she aged and her family aged would have no other way of being cared for if she were left unmarried and childless. You added the word sex..I saw that no where in scripture. The reason why she wouldn't be released after 6 years is because her livelyhood would be in jeopardy. Women could only own land, cattle or goods if they were inherited from a husband. All other wealth would have gone to the eldest son. So..now ya know. Love in Christ, ~J~ <><
2006-07-07 08:25:06 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
NIV
Ex 21:7 “If a man sells his daughter as a servant, she is not to go free as menservants do.
Ex 21:8 If she does not please the master who has selected her for himself, he must let her be redeemed. He has no right to sell her to foreigners, because he has broken faith with her.
Ex 21:9 If he selects her for his son, he must grant her the rights of a daughter.
Ex 21:10 If he marries another woman, he must not deprive the first one of her food, clothing and marital rights.
Ex 21:11 If he does not provide her with these three things, she is to go free, without any payment of money.
show us the word sex slave.
NOTICE verse 9 -10
9 If he selects her for his son, he must grant her the RIGHTS of a DAUGHTER.
10 If he marries another woman, he must NOT deprive the first one of her food, clothing and marital rights.
He HAD to support her
The fact remains that they women were treated far BETTER in israel then the other nations and it was NOT a slave as we understand today. get your facts right
2006-07-07 08:29:49 · answer #3 · answered by rbmath2000 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is old world stuff. The only place it may still be in practice is in some old world cultures but it is not common here in the United States. Only the very religious practice that. These days women are just as valued as men.
Know your history and what is really going on before you ask a question that is clearly out dated. I think you just did this for shock value.
2006-07-07 08:27:04 · answer #4 · answered by Anne M 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Here is the King James Version:
And if a man sell his daughter to be a maidservant, she shall not go out as the menservants do. If she please not her master, who hath betrothed her to himself, then shall he let her be redeemed: to sell her unto a strange nation he shall have no power, seeing he hath dealt deceitfully with her. And if he have betrothed her unto his son, he shall deal with her after the manner of daughters. If he take him another wife; her food, her raiment, and her duty of marriage, shall he not diminish. And if he do not these three unto her, then shall she go out free without money.
And here is the NIV version:
"If a man sells his daughter as a servant, she is not to go free as menservants do. If she does not please the master who has selected her for himself, he must let her be redeemed. He has no right to sell her to foreigners, because he has broken faith with her. If he selects her for his son, he must grant her the rights of a daughter. If he marries another woman, he must not deprive the first one of her food, clothing and marital rights. If he does not provide her with these three things, she is to go free, without any payment of money.
I don't know which version of the Bible you use; but between the three, there is not the word "sex" anywhere.
2006-07-07 08:18:43 · answer #5 · answered by Iamnotarobot (former believer) 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is just another sign of the wisdom of God.
After all Christians will say the bible is the perfect word of God. Frankly I'm surprised more Christians do not engage in this behavior!
Who are we to argue with the plan of God! Sick bastard!
2006-07-07 08:27:51 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is not moral to sell your daughter as a sex slave.
2006-07-07 08:17:59 · answer #7 · answered by MikeD 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no 1 should sale there daughter as a slave or any thing else it's rong the bible says so
2006-07-07 08:19:32 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Once again you are asking a question that concerns a common practice and does not apply today.
2006-07-07 08:18:01 · answer #9 · answered by drg5609 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
How many times are you going to post this?
2006-07-07 08:17:56 · answer #10 · answered by Candice H 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋