It gets pretty darned thorough in other areas of sexuality (just read all the incest prohibitions), so I doubt God just "forgot" to mention it or assumed we'd take it as a given.
Something similar with pre-marital and extra-marital sex. It forbids sleeping with a married person, and it says men who sleep with virgins must reimburse the girl's family. But it doesn't forbid consensual sex between two unmarried and unrelated adults or teenagers.
2006-07-07 05:00:11 · 39 answers · asked by Bill Bittner 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
As to finding the prohibition in the NT: If the act was so sinful, why would God wait so many centuries to clarify it?
2006-07-07 05:09:59 · update #1
The bible is written by humans.
2006-07-07 05:03:22 · answer #1 · answered by FY 4 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Because women weren't important when men wrote the bible.
It doesn't forbid consensual sex between unmarried and unrelated people because if it did, who would have sex?
And not between 2 teenagers because at the time when the bible was written people were getting married at 13/14 and dying at 30.
2006-07-07 05:04:41 · answer #2 · answered by longnosedquoll 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Leviticus 18:22 states that homosexual acts are against God's laws. The actual wording mainly references male homosexuality but as stated main times in the Bible, God is just and fair. Therefore if such homosexual acts are wrong in God's eyes concerning men, then also for women. I think the main reason for the sole inclusion concerning male homosexuality is because of the simple fact that in Moses's and Joshua's day men were the figures in power and women were subservient to men. Therefore such acts by women would be already condemned because of women's role in the society. Men however were in a place of power (only men could be priests etc.) and God wanted men to know that such acts were wrong. Women were to follow men (men led them by example). So if men were not to take part in homosexuality, nor were women. Hopefully this helps you. If not, read the Bible and form your own view. Or possibly another person can enlighten you. God bless.
2006-07-07 05:13:25 · answer #3 · answered by Drew 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The bible was written to keep the Jews in line. The purpose of the marriage/sex laws was to provide for the families in case the man died and his family was left destitute. Women were not mentioned very often in the bible at all because it was written by men who were part of a patriarchal society. This is why God is referred to as "Father" instead of "Mother." This is also why Eve tempted Adam. If you look closely at the bible, women have very little to do with it except to provide children, in the case of the resolute wife; or to provide temptation, in the case of the whore. So women sleeping with women is not at issue because it does not concern men.
2006-07-07 05:08:38 · answer #4 · answered by Joaneo 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
God didn't "forget" anything.
RE: lesbianism, we read in Romans 1:
"26 For this reason God gave them up to vile passions. For even their women exchanged the natural use for what is against nature. 27 Likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust for one another, men with men committing what is shameful, and receiving in themselves the penalty of their error which was due."
Proverbs 5:15-21 (this is rated PG-13) discusses extra-marital sex rather graphically (well, for the Bible ...):
"15 Drink water from your own cistern,
And running water from your own well.
16 Should your fountains be dispersed abroad,
Streams of water in the streets?
17 Let them be only your own,
And not for strangers with you.
18 Let your fountain be blessed,
And rejoice with the wife of your youth.
19 As a loving deer and a graceful doe,
Let her breasts satisfy you at all times;
And always be enraptured with her love.
20 For why should you, my son, be enraptured by an immoral woman,
And be embraced in the arms of a seductress?
21 For the ways of man are before the eyes of the LORD,
And He ponders all his paths."
2006-07-07 05:26:04 · answer #5 · answered by Suzanne: YPA 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
"Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their WOMEN EXCHANGED NATURAL RELATIONS for unnatural ones. In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their perversion." Romans 1:26-27
This passage condemns lesbian (women sleeping women) activity.
"Or do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived; neither FORNICATORS, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor homosexuals, nor thieves, nor the covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor swindlers, will inherit the kingdom of God." 1 Corinthians 6:9-10
Fornicators are unmarried individuals who engage in sexual intercourse.
Therefore, to answer your question, the Bible does forbid women sleeping with women and it forbids consensual sex between two unmarried and unrelated adults or teenagers. The answers are there for all to see if they would simply read.
God Bless....
2006-07-07 05:23:13 · answer #6 · answered by idog96 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It does forbid it-its called fornication. Also read Romans ch 1. Two women having sex is (or men ) is a result of rejection of God. You need to read the whole Bible.
2006-07-07 05:06:27 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Now that's a good one. Some might argue that is because men translated the bible and most of them seem to have a secret desire to watch women have sex with each other.
yea that is something to think about. Oh and it could be well you know with so many wives they might have considered it OK for the women in the harem
2006-07-07 05:09:13 · answer #8 · answered by Wise Old Witch 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Read Romans 1:26-27
26 For this reason God gave them up to vile passions. For even their women exchanged the natural use for what is against nature. 27 Likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust for one another, men with men committing what is shameful, and receiving in themselves the penalty of their error which was due. Woman are included.
2006-07-07 05:24:45 · answer #9 · answered by Merryhadda 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It forbibids both types.
Romans 2:24 Wherefore God also gave them up to uncleanness through the lusts of their own hearts, to dishonour their own bodies between themselves:
26 For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature:
27 And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.
29 Being filled with all unrighteousness, fornication, wickedness, covetousness, maliciousness; full of envy, murder, debate, deceit, malignity; whisperers,
2006-07-07 05:09:56 · answer #10 · answered by St Lusakan 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The bible forbids any sex out side of a man and a woman who are married to each other.
2006-07-07 05:04:43 · answer #11 · answered by ? 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋