This was the askers question
whats 1+1?
is it 3?
1 man + women = 1 baby
overall 3 right?
I answered
2006-07-06
21:02:04
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4 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Arts & Humanities
➔ Philosophy
1+1= 144 going by that principle........... youd have to times the maximum number of babies a woman could become pregnant (B) With by the number of pregnancys a woman could concieve in her life time while she was fertile (P) or
1+1=(B+P)
if you wanted a rough estimate i guess you could use 3 for B as with fertility drugs and good prenatal care there would be a good chance of survival for all the babies and you could use Now lets also say that this woman lives to be 90 using no-gap between pregnancys this would allow her to have 120 pregnancys if she started from birth and went to death (9 months(pregnancy) has a common denominator with 12 months(a year) at 36 months so we can use this to figure that she can have 4 pregnancys(36/9) evey 3 years(36/12) 3years x 30 = 90 years of life so 9months x30 =120 pregnancys in that life) however since she is not fertile for all of her life let say shes only fertile for 36 years divide that by 3 to get how many three year spans there are this
2006-07-06
21:03:38 ·
update #1
get how many three year spans there are this leaves 12 since we already established that she can have 4 pregancys every 3 years times 4 by 12 and you get 48 pregnancys during the time while shes fertile so now you need to times 3(B) which would be the number of babies she could carry at any one time by 48(P) which would be the number of pregnancys she could have
or 1+1= (3 x 48)
or 1+1= 144
Not to bad for a guy who faile high school math twice huhn? =)
2006-07-06
21:05:34 ·
update #2