2006-07-06 15:47:41 · 16 answers · asked by wizard 4 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
a large bang.
2006-07-06 16:05:35 · answer #1 · answered by edhchoe 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Well, all these theories are interesting, but I think that...
1) The immovable object would move; becoming an irresistible force, and
2) the irresistible force would stop, becoming an immovable object.
In other words; they would exchange roles. You can see an example if you shoot one billiard ball at another one which is standing still. Assuming a perfectly elastic collision, and that the centers of mass were in line with the collision, ALL the momentum is transferred from the ball in motion to the ball at rest. The ball which was in motion stops and the ball which was at rest moves. Your question is just the same thing, scaled up.
2006-07-06 23:09:42 · answer #2 · answered by cdf-rom 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is impossible, by definition for an immovable object and an irresistible force to both exist. The existence of one precludes the existence of the other.
2006-07-06 22:51:36 · answer #3 · answered by rt11guru 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The best answer I've seen to this question is:
Chuck Norris
He is the immovable object.
He is the Irresistible force.
He can never meet himself so don't worry about it.
Seriously though, your question will only make sense if you define the terms "immovable" and "irresistible". Once you do that, you may find your answer for yourself.
2006-07-07 01:33:53 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
There is no such thing as an immovable object. Current theories even suggest that our universe itself is moving in relation to other universes, therefore everything in the universe is moving. Also, everything is subject to the forces of gravity (gravity could be your irresistable force).
2006-07-06 22:52:47 · answer #5 · answered by darcy_t2e 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If I am quoting you correctly...irresistable means "having no resistance"... so we have an ideal force acting on the "immovable" object... if the object does not move then it might experience internal inter-molecular forces and ... maybe crumble and not move or experience some deformation... if the object is truly elastic then it will experience nothing persay...
2006-07-06 22:56:06 · answer #6 · answered by Aldebaran 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Simple logic...either the "immovable object" isn't immovable, or the "irresistible" force isn't irresistible.
2006-07-06 22:57:09 · answer #7 · answered by Chug-a-Lug 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There isn't such thing as immovable object or irresistible force, they exert an infinite force on each other but I don't beliece in infinite force.
2006-07-06 23:57:17 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The irresistible force just bounces of it and moves around. A great example of this is a huge boulder in a river. The boulder can not be moved by the water, but the river can't be stopped so it simplly goes around it.
2006-07-06 22:55:18 · answer #9 · answered by Mr Hex Vision 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A harden heart can be imovable but love is an irristible force that can move the heart.What happens is understood.
2006-07-06 23:10:01 · answer #10 · answered by goring 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Christina Agular starts making it with Ivanhoe Fats.
2006-07-06 22:53:29 · answer #11 · answered by eric l 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋