2006-07-06 04:41:25 · 6 answers · asked by sweets 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
First: let y = f(x).
Second: swap x & y. Now we have x = ln( y ^ (1/2) ).
Third: solve for y. That gives us y = e^(2x), which is the inverse function.
Hope that helps!
2006-07-06 04:45:52 · answer #1 · answered by Jay H 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
f(x) = ln(x^(1/2))
f(x) = (1/2)ln(x)
y = (1/2)lnx
x = (1/2)lny
multiply both sides by 2
2x = lny
e^x both sides
y = e^(2x) or (e^2)^x
f^-1(x) = e^(2x) or (e^2)^x
they both mean the same thing.
2006-07-06 11:51:52 · answer #2 · answered by Sherman81 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Let y=ln(x^(1/2))
Then y=ln(x)/2
2y=ln(x)
e^2y=x
Thus, f^(-1)(x)=e^2x
2006-07-06 11:56:32 · answer #3 · answered by kooshman38 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
exponential of 2x
2006-07-06 11:58:09 · answer #4 · answered by want to know 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
((2/1)^x) nl=(x)f
TFTP
2006-07-06 11:45:47 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
e^2x
2006-07-06 12:46:41 · answer #6 · answered by hyperhealer3 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋