2006-07-06 00:18:08 · 11 answers · asked by Kulo_Rex 1 in Sports ➔ Football ➔ FIFA World Cup (TM)
Yes. it's a foul if the ball is deflected but the free kick would be indirect at the ref's discretion. The ref also has the option to wave 'play on' despite the foul if, in his judgement, the deflection actually benefits the opposing team. It's called 'playing advantage'.
2006-07-06 00:23:52 · answer #1 · answered by Frog Five 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
relies upon - if he keeps his hands immediately up and doesn't bypass, provides the shooter sufficient room to carry close that he's there, and the shooter runs into him besides, then that is an offensive foul. If he keeps his hands outwards (outside of the span of his ft) and falls/strikes backwards because the offensive participant runs into him, or if he makes contact with the shooter's arm lower than the wrist (or the hand, relying on how problematic the referee needs to get), then that's a protective foul.
2016-10-14 04:23:16 · answer #2 · answered by windy 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yea cuz it will be his hand moving towards the ball which is results a foul
2006-07-06 00:22:47 · answer #3 · answered by islam k 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes that will be a foul if the player is playing FOOTBALL
2006-07-06 00:21:36 · answer #4 · answered by ? 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes. Cause its still a hand ball.
2006-07-06 00:25:28 · answer #5 · answered by London girls other account 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no, i dont think so. youre just trying not to get whacked in the head.
2006-07-06 00:20:44 · answer #6 · answered by standstill 22 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Usually no
2006-07-06 00:21:39 · answer #7 · answered by johnny serbia 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes n i think he gets a red card.. coz he can move or sth..
2006-07-06 01:06:50 · answer #8 · answered by shoosh_b 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yea
2006-07-06 00:23:18 · answer #9 · answered by MelDee5♥ 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
nope
2006-07-06 00:20:03 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋