2006-07-05 17:31:20 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Family & Relationships ➔ Family
If they have the same last name, yes.
They do that in royalty alot.
2006-07-05 17:34:31 · answer #1 · answered by Lisa N 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
NO! It is only if the uncle fathered the child.
If a child is named after a granfather, but skipped the father, then it resets to start all over again. the grandfather would not have a 1st after his name.
2006-07-06 00:41:28 · answer #2 · answered by olivia6799 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes, but also II is a replacement for Jr. i am named after my father but i am the II on my birth certificate
2006-07-06 00:35:52 · answer #3 · answered by native 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He would, yes, unless father was 3rd and Grandpa was second. If that's the case, the boy would be 4th.
2006-07-06 00:53:36 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
NO it has to be named after the dad and grandpa in order to be the third.
Example:
John Don Doe-----Grandpa (your grandpa)(Sr.)
John Don Doe II---Son of Grandpa (your dad)(Jr.)
John Don Doe III--Baby of Son (your brother)(3rd)
2006-07-06 00:45:10 · answer #5 · answered by SapphireB 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
he could be the first "name" ever and you could name him the 18th if you wanted to. Technically i don't think it would be cuz those suffixes are usually for straight lineage names, so he should be the 2nd.
?
2006-07-06 00:42:57 · answer #6 · answered by Fox 34 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no, only named after grampa and dad
2006-07-06 00:36:00 · answer #7 · answered by CLBH 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No just redundant & pissed because his family has no imagination.
2006-07-06 00:35:50 · answer #8 · answered by Troy 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋