but they were NOT given ears to hear or eyes to see so how would they know? in new testament it says "they are partly blinded for to cause jealousy...." (and until the fullness of the gentiles is come)
but one day they will know.........
2006-07-05 06:02:58
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answer #1
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answered by safarlsun33 4
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Judaism takes what was said without assuming anything more than what was said. The promise was that there would be a renewed covenant when, during future times, Jews are given a heart that understands without instruction. The difference is not in the content, as it is still refered to as the Torah, but in that we won't break it as our ancestors did, because WE will change. The covenant with Jews is eternal and once we are ready to have it fully internalized, paradise will emerge. We don't need a person -- a person can't "fulfill" my need for a heart, or "complete" a law (linguistically, that's just plain silly) -- Jer 31:33 says clearly that God will place his Torah into our hearts, not some other set of laws.
Check out Ezekiel 36 to make this clearer. The difference in the nature of the eternal covenant of Torah observance would be in our natures, not in the covenant itself.
2006-07-05 06:07:27
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answer #2
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answered by rosends 7
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I don't understand your quotes. They do not state a child of God is on the way and he must be the Savior.
You also must realize the Old Testaments arw a collection of old scrolls and stories put together over the ages. It's not just 1 author writing everything down as it happens. You cannot take it word for word.
Also realize that the book you're reading has been translated from Hebrew, and literal word-for-word translations don't work. Many old testament sections were originally in other languages and then put into Hebrew. Alot can be lost in translation.
2006-07-05 06:10:36
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answer #3
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answered by Funchy 6
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Jews believe that GOD not Jesus will ascend from Heaven and "Save" everyone that believes in him/her/it. Jesus was nothing more than a teacher to the Jewish faith. That he's been labled the son of God is blastphemy to the Jews and as such he can not be the Messiah. Additionally, when subjected to the tests in the Bible Jesus passed MOST but not all of them so he couldn't be the Messiah.
Herein lies another question: Assuming there is a God why did he/she give us free will? Well, the answer is clear...it's up to HUMANITY to save itself from itself. In other words lets stop arguing about which God to believe in or how to believe and put our faith in eachother. Novel idea, huh? Well I would argue that mankind is sheding more blood over your question than anything else (War in IRAQ--beginning of 4th or 5th Crusade?).
2006-07-05 06:13:29
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answer #4
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answered by thebigm57 7
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I take it that's a rhetorical question. But for 2 points I'll answer a rhetorical question: It isn't.
2006-07-05 06:02:18
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answer #5
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answered by bachlava_9 3
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Rather then I sit here and type a thesis. Go to http://www.jewsforjudaism
2006-07-05 06:04:51
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answer #6
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answered by Quantrill 7
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I don't understand that way of thinking either.
2006-07-05 06:00:42
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answer #7
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answered by Mommymonster 7
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It must fulfill prophecy, then it is true.
2006-07-05 06:01:11
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answer #8
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answered by kyleissuper 2
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