Ok this may make some people angry but I am not doing it for that purpose. I just want to get a mature answer from someone. Yes or No and why.
If Losing your virginity means having sexual intercourse for the first time which is the act of penetration between a woman and a man.
Why I have heard homosexuals (lesbians and male homosexuals) claiming that they aren't virgins anymore (referring as being homosexual and never being heterosexual, if they have never had sexual intercourse with a person of the opposite sex.
I know they have their own way of having sex, like duh, I know that, but if they have sex doesn't matter what kind as long they get sexually intimate for their first time.
Does that make them non-virgins anymore? Or not and it just something they say to classify themselves as sexually active or something?
Mature answers please. I am heterosexual so I guess I am an ignorant in this. I don't want to make anyone angry. I am just curious.
2006-07-04 23:51:21 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Cultures & Groups ➔ Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender
Perhaps you should first determine what VIRGINITY is defined to be.
And define how LOSING ONE's VIRGINITY is meant to occur.
If you were to view it as "penetration/intercourse between a man and a woman" then homosexuals who never have engaged sexual intercourse with women would then forever be virgins.
If you were to view it as the "breakage of the female hymen" then men are forever to be virgins.
If you were to look at it as merely "engaged in sexual conduct" then it opens a new barrage of definitions needed, such as whether masturbation, mutual masturbation, oral, anal, and the like count or not in defining sexual conduct.
Realize that the general question you have is whether or not you "fit" in a particular label. Do bear in mind, labels are ultimately defined by the those who use them. Even if you choose to call yourself a "virgin" for example for never having touched a woman, another person may think you are not a virgin for having slept with men. This can even get more confusing as some gay men consider "anal penetration" to be necessary for a gay man to no longer be a virgin. For other gay men, oral sex is enough to say you are no longer a virgin.
So define the label for yourself first. Then see if you fit in that defitintion (assuming you really want to force yourself into labels, that is.)
Hope that helps!
2006-07-04 23:56:56 · answer #1 · answered by tobito_abad 3 · 5⤊ 0⤋
I'm not sure what you're asking, but "virginity" is not something that is inherent to heterosexuals. By implying otherwise, you seem to be dismissing homosexuality as "not REAL." Your reasoning is fallacious when you assume that sex is "the act of penetration between a woman and a man." Kind of smacks of right wing 'family values' propaganda...
2006-07-05 00:00:44 · answer #2 · answered by jake78745 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You're not necessarily ignorant it's just your definition of what is virginity. As you are Hetero- you clearly recognise a man or a woman's first time with the opposite sex as being the act of losing their virginity.
Homosexuals consider losing their virginity as being when they have intercourse with a person of the same sex.
Consequently, Bi-folk get to lose their virginity twice! (LOL!)
Besides in common speech you can lose your virginity status with anything as long as it's your first time (on a plane, on a cruise... "I'm no longer an Air virgin", "I'm no longer a cruise virgin"). Talking of which, ships and planes lose their virginity on their maiden voyage...
2006-07-05 00:00:34 · answer #3 · answered by unclefrunk 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Different people have different definitions of virginity. It isn't necessarily the first time penetration occurs between a man and a woman.
2006-07-05 07:22:26 · answer #4 · answered by holidayspice 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hey, the best answer to this question is ez. No one dies a virgin life ***** us all. So weather or not they had sex with some guy in Cell 311 or with a woman they dint lose their virginity to either
2006-07-05 00:18:37 · answer #5 · answered by unriveledhonor 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
language means both what the speaker means, and what the listener infers. To myself, a non-virgin has engaged in sexual behavior, and that's it.
For example, a female who wants to "save herself" for marriage, and avoids vaginal intercourse by having anal intercourse is just plain lying to herself. Sex is physical intimacy, and if you've taken it up the butt, don't tell me you've saved yourself for Mr. Right.
My one buddy just came out, and he's hooked up with a few fellas using the internet, but he's engaged in oral sex and spanking only. He's a bit too uptight for anal (pun intended) but he's not a virgin.
2006-07-05 00:56:09 · answer #6 · answered by tkdeity 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
there are 3 types of sex:
penetration through the vagina (vaginal sex I think it is)
through the behind (anal sex)
and.. well, oral sex
they are all types of sex, but the only one that can impregnate is the first one there. You can still get STDs, from all three
2006-07-04 23:57:22 · answer #7 · answered by ♫ 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
"The secret of health for both mind and body is not to mourn for the past, worry about the future, or anticipate troubles but to live in the present moment wisely and earnestly."
2006-07-04 23:57:40 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
"The secret of health for both mind and body is not to mourn for the past, worry about the future, or anticipate troubles but to live in the present moment wisely and earnestly."
2006-07-04 23:54:22 · answer #9 · answered by cgdchris 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
they lost their virginity long ago when they were heterosexual, and then they decide to explore their other fantancy se.x side.!!
2006-07-04 23:54:11 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋