ive just heard too many ppl say that its fixed in favor of italy, just wanna know wat other ppl think.
2006-07-04 15:50:08 · 15 answers · asked by rddaryani 1 in Sports ➔ Football ➔ FIFA World Cup (TM)
I'm sorry for you all, but NO WAY.
The referee didn't favor Italy at all today. Actually, there were a few German fouls that weren't even punished. All in all, however, the referee did a good job. He gave few yellow cards and to both teams, and he awarded free kicks and corners to both teams.
Both teams played the game of their lives. No way Italy cheated, soooo sorry!!! ;-) Germany had their opportunities to score too, they just weren't lucky enough. Apart from a great save by Buffon, they shot too high or hit the bar. Italy did that too, but at the end of the extra time they just kicked the ball into the net. Fair and square, no diving, no penalty kicks. Sorry to disappoint you all, but that's how it went. You are welcome to watch the game all over again if you don't believe it.
This tells us a couple of things: 1) Italy start slowly on all world cups. They wake up towards the end. And sometimes they even win the World Cup. 2.) Italy play according to their opponent's skills. They may have underrated the USA and Australia, that's why they played bad games against them, especially the US. Last but not least, they may have beaten Australia fair and square too, had they played the extra time. I mean, if they could beat Germany, who many people here considered one of the best teams...
Anyway, losers are always sore losers. So they'll blame their loss on "that nation of cheaters and corrupts who bribed Fifa". But then again, is Jens Lehmann a corrupt too? How much did they give him not to save those two goals in the end? Come on! That's just soooo stupid.
After all, the World Cup is always fixed in favor of the team that wins it, isn't it? ;-) And Italy haven't even won it yet. So, just shut up.
2006-07-04 16:31:02 · answer #1 · answered by thecatphotographer 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
1930 replaced into the inaugurating year of the form and this is host Uruguay replaced into additionally the 1st winner. The 1932 opposition, first to introduce skills, additionally observed its host win the cup; set in Italy in the process fascist domination, there replaced into lots controversy bearing directly to Mussolini's impression on the referees' judgements that delivered approximately Italy's victory. via fact many eu countries had snubbed the 1930 international Cup, in 1932 Uruguay desperate to no longer participate as an illustration of protest. The 1938 video games have been performed in France, the place Italy retained this is identify of champions of the international. Fearing a eu monopoly of the championship, this time the two Uruguay and Argentina desperate to no longer look.
2016-11-01 05:24:14 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
How can it be fixed in Italys' favor if France is going to beat them in the final game.
2006-07-04 16:12:09 · answer #3 · answered by elgil 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If Australia - Italy game was fixed, why was Italian player wrongly sent off, changing the course of the game?
2006-07-04 16:35:34 · answer #4 · answered by rinolup 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes! in the australia v Italy game, during the round of 16, the Italian guy jumped over an aussie guy, made it looked like he tripped making himself go into the ground hard, and he got a penalty in the last seconds of a game...BLOODY REF!!!!
2006-07-04 15:54:24 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
sorry but if the game was fixed- it wouldn't have been fixed to benefit the host team. Sorry Germany. You played like crap against Argentina and you finally got knocked out. Bye Bye
2006-07-04 17:04:05 · answer #6 · answered by farrahbabes 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes. Italy cheats all the time! As everyone knows. They look like babies on the field. Always falling and moaning
2006-07-04 16:08:43 · answer #7 · answered by mystique 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
In any case, shouldn´t it have been fixed for Germany rather than Italy??? After all, Germany IS were its being held....
2006-07-04 15:54:22 · answer #8 · answered by CrazySexyCool 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, ref's are always bias to one of the two teams that are playing and shouldn't ref cuz the best teams always get's cheated out so a crapy team ends up winning it all......i say it's not fair!!
2006-07-04 16:33:39 · answer #9 · answered by Dog Luva 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Ha HA HA HA HA HA HA HA HA ....
IT'S SOME AMUSEMENT TO SEE CONSPIRACY THEORISTS...LISTEN PAL LET ME TELL YOU SOMETHING. THE PEOPLE YOU ARE TALKING ABOUT IN THE BEGINNING SAID THAT IT WAS FIXED FOR BRAZIL AS THEY HAD AN EASY PASSAGE...THEN WHEN GERMANY BEAT ARGENTINA THEY SAID IT WAS FIXED FOR HOSTS....NOW ITALY.
REAL JOKERS THESE PEOPLE ARE....THEY SHOULD TRY WATCHING A GAME INSTEAD..
2006-07-04 17:19:05 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋