2006-07-04 10:59:22 · 16 answers · asked by -.- 6 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
No.
The answer depends on axiomatic definitions of
"1", "2", "+" and "=". Depending on definitions and other axioms the statement may be "true" "false", "neither true nor false" and even "meaningless"
2006-07-05 06:23:50 · answer #1 · answered by hq3 6 · 1⤊ 2⤋
1+1= 2 always.
2006-07-04 18:22:56 · answer #2 · answered by lizzardkingone 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. In the Binary system 1+1=10.
2006-07-04 21:02:31 · answer #3 · answered by ☢☠☣☢☠☣ 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Someone told me about negentropy where 1+1=1. I don't know enough about it to buy that garbage. If you are asking if there are any truisms, then yes, I should hope so. That's not to say that those truisms will never be negated. The world is more round than flat. that is true, yet I'm sure it can be argued, perhaps with some validity. All you have to do is say 1+1=2 and yes, the next number to succeed one is two. Two ones make two. It is a system we have derived.
2006-07-08 05:35:35 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not when dating.
1+1 may equal 7 or only 1 in that area.
2006-07-04 18:03:37 · answer #5 · answered by LORD Z 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. In fact, 1 does not always equal 1.
1/3rd is 3.3repeated, 2/3rds is 6.6repeated, 3/3rds (or a whole, 1) is 9.9repeated. 9.9 repeated does not = 1.
There you have it.
2006-07-04 19:31:14 · answer #6 · answered by LoonieGirl 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nope. 1 + 1 = 3 if you don't use good birthcontrol
2006-07-04 18:02:34 · answer #7 · answered by therego2 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
well not in the binary system of numbers, which only contain 0 and 1
it equals 10 if you add them up the binary way!!
Which then of course equals 2 in the decimal system...
2006-07-04 18:03:00 · answer #8 · answered by someone 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes
2006-07-04 18:03:35 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes
2006-07-04 18:02:30 · answer #10 · answered by dannym7500 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋